Bios 1300 SI

Shiloh & Katie

Exam Review 3

Chapter 7

  1. Which cells build bones?
  2. Osteoclasts
  3. Osteoblasts
  4. Osteocytes
  5. Osteoprogenitor cells
  6. Where are osteocytes located in?
  7. Bone collar
  8. Lacunae
  9. Primary Ossification center
  10. In blood
  1. What bone does Intramembranous Ossification not produce?
  2. Maxilla
  3. Clavicle
  4. Ribs
  5. Mandible
  6. What cartilage is being replaced with bone tissue in Endochondral Ossification?
  7. Elastic
  8. Fibrocatilage
  9. Dense CT
  10. Hyaline
  1. What is the function of Chondrocytes?
  2. Build bone
  3. Enlarge and leave holes
  4. Break down bones
  5. Calcify the cartilage
  6. What is bone growth that occurs in length called?
  7. Appositional growth
  8. Endochondral Ossification
  9. Interstitial growth
  10. Intramembranous Ossification
  11. What zone of growth at the epiphyseal plate is where growth occurs
  12. Zone of bone deposition and cell hypertrophy
  13. Zone of cell proliferation and calcification
  14. Zone of cell hypertrophy and cell proliferation
  15. Zone of bone deposition and cell proliferation
  16. What zone of growth at the epiphyseal plate has lacunae wall break down?
  17. Zone of reserve cartilage
  18. Zone of cell proliferation
  19. Zone of calcification
  20. Zone of bone deposition
  21. Which hormone makes bone grow at the epiphyseal plate but slowly?
  22. Estrogen
  23. Testosterone
  24. PTH
  25. Calcitonin
  26. Which is not a dietary nutrient for bone growth?
  27. Calcium and phosphate
  28. Vitamin A
  29. Vitamin D
  30. Protein
  31. What is not a growth hormone for the bone
  32. GH
  33. Insulin-like growth factor
  34. PTH
  35. Thyroid hormones
  36. ______bone is replaced slower rate than ______bone.
  37. Why do people who exercise have larger cortices in bone?
  38. Charles’s Law
  39. Dalton’s Law
  40. Hennery’s law
  41. Wolff’s Law
  42. Which of the following are reasons why you would take longer to heal a fracture? (pick 2)
  43. Lack of LDL’s
  44. DM
  45. Bronchitis
  46. Smoking
  47. What is normal Calcium levels in the blood
  48. 7.35-7.45
  49. 9.2-10.4
  50. 8.3-9.2
  51. 6.5-7.5
  52. Which is not a function of calcium?
  53. Increases kidney function
  54. Nerve Exocytosis
  55. Muscle contraction
  56. Helps with blood clotting
  57. Which causes muscle and nerve depression?
  58. Hypocalcemia
  59. Hypercalcemia
  60. Put the following in order.
  61. Add OH group by liver(Changes to calcidiol)
  62. Add OH group by kidney
  63. Changes from 7-dehydrocholestrol to Vit D3 at epidermis (by uv light)
  64. Vit D diffuses into blood
  65. Calcitriol diffuses into blood
  66. Calcidiol diffuses into the blood

______, ______, ______, ______, ______, ______,

  1. Which is not a function of Calcitriol?
  2. Stimulates abosrbition of Ca+ at small intestine
  3. Stimulates osteoclasts
  4. Tells kidneys to release Ca+
  5. Inhibits Osteoblasts
  6. Rickets occurs in ______and osteomalacia occurs in ______.
  7. What is not a function of PTH
  8. Promotes Calcitrol synthesis at liver
  9. Increases Osteoclasts activity
  10. Increases Ca+ absorption
  11. Inhibit College synthesis
  12. What is not a function of Calcitonin?
  13. Stimulates Calcitriol
  14. Stops osteoclast activity
  15. Tells kidneys to release Ca+
  16. Increases Osteoblast activity
  17. How long does it take for a bone to heal in general?
  18. 7-10 weeks
  19. 5-6 weeks
  20. 14-16 weeks
  21. 8-12 weeks
  22. Put the following in order
  23. Bone has hard callus and is bone is turned into compact bone
  24. Fracture hematoma forms
  25. A fibrocartolagionus callus forms
  26. Hard callus forms

______, ______, ______, ______

  1. Which fracture is a pediatric fracture?
  2. Stress
  3. Compression
  4. Tarus
  5. Avulsion
  6. Which fracture shows up on an X ray as bent on one side?
  7. Greenstick
  8. Growth plate
  9. Tarus
  10. Compression
  11. Which fracture is associated with Osgood-schlatters disease?
  12. Compression
  13. Greenstick
  14. Avulsion
  15. Non-union
  16. In a bone scan the areas of high metabolism show up:
  17. Light areas
  18. Red color
  19. Dark areas
  20. White areas

Chapter 8

  1. How many bones are in adulthood?
  2. 270
  3. 206
  4. 254
  5. 232
  6. What are sesamoids?
  7. Bones in ligaments
  8. Extra bones in the skull
  9. Bones in tendons
  10. Bones in muscle
  11. Which one of these is not a paranasal sinus?
  12. Frontal
  13. Sphenoid
  14. Maxillary
  15. Nasal
  16. Which one of these are not auditory ossicles?
  17. Mastoids
  18. Incus
  19. Stapes
  20. Malleus
  21. Which broken bone is usually a sign of strangulation?
  22. C1 and C2
  23. Mastoid process
  24. Clavicle
  25. Hyoid
  26. The ______goes out the bottom of the foramen magnum and ______goes out the top.
  27. How many ribs do we have?
  28. 10
  29. 8
  30. 14
  31. 12
  32. Which about the female pelvis is not true?
  33. Enlarged pelvic outlet
  34. Broad pubic angle
  35. More curvature of the sacrum and coccyx
  36. Wide, circular pelvic inlet
  37. Which is refered to as a supinated foot?
  38. Pes planus
  39. Pes Cavus
  40. Charcot foot
  41. “key stone” arch
  42. What type of foot needs a shoe that helps with stability?
  43. Pes Planus
  44. Pas Cavus
  45. Charcot foot
  46. “Key Stone” Arch
  47. Label the following picture:

  1. What is the purpose of articular cartilage?
  2. Nothing, it is left over from endochondral ossification
  3. To increase friction in a joint to allow for more traction
  4. To send pain signals to the brain in cases of damage
  5. To create a smooth surface with minimal friction
  6. Why is movement of synovial fluid important?
  7. Because movement of a joint means you’re active and healthy
  8. Moving is needed to strengthen the bone
  9. Need to move joints to distribute nutrients
  10. Because movement of the fluid provides proper blood flow
  11. Which of the following does NOT have an articular disc?
  12. TM joint
  13. SC joint
  14. AC joint
  15. Elbow joint
  16. Tendons attach ______to ______.
  17. Bone to bone
  18. Bone to muscle
  19. Tendon to muscle
  20. Muscle to muscle
  21. When a person is holding a plank (ab excerise), which of the following would best describe this?
  22. Isometric
  23. Isotonic
  24. Eccentric
  25. Concentric
  26. Which of the following joints is least stable?
  27. Hinge
  28. Pivot
  29. Ball and socket
  30. Saddle
  31. Which of the following has the greatest range of motion?
  32. Knee
  33. Elbow
  34. Sternoclavicular
  35. Glenohumeral
  36. What describes death of the femoral head due to insufficient microvascular feeding within the acetabulum?
  37. Acetabulum stenosis
  38. Femoral shaft fracture
  39. Avascular necrosis
  40. Vascular necrosis
  41. Which of the following is not a ligament of the knee?
  42. Patellar ligament
  43. PCL
  44. ACL
  45. Annular ligament
  46. A & D
  47. When white blood cells leak from the synovial membrane and the articular cartilage erodes, the person experiences pain & swelling. What is this?
  48. Osteoarthritis
  49. Rheumatoid arthritis
  50. Avulsion fracture
  51. Damage to the joint capsule
  52. Complete rupture of a muscle is called?
  53. 3rd degree sprain
  54. 3rd degree strain
  55. 2nd degree sprain
  56. 2nd degree sprain
  57. Ischemia to a muscle compartment that compresses an artery is what condition?
  58. Slipped disc
  59. 3rd degree muscle strain
  60. compartment syndrome
  61. Osteoarthritis
  62. A synergist muscle can perform the majority of the force during the joint action if the agonist is damaged:
  63. TRUE
  64. FALSE
  65. Muscles, like bones, are not highly vascularized.
  66. TRUE
  67. FALSE
  68. What structure holds calcium over myofibrils?
  69. Endoplasmic reticulum
  70. Lysosomes
  71. Mitochondria
  72. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  73. Sarcolemma
  74. What structures make up the triad?
  75. 2 mitochondria and 1 T tubule
  76. 1 T tubule and the sarcolemma
  77. 2 terminal cisternae and 1 T tubule
  78. 2 terminal cisternae and 1 mitochondria
  79. What are the two contractile proteins?
  80. Actin and Myosin
  81. Troponin and tropomyosin
  82. Myosin and tropomyosin
  83. Actin and Troponin
  84. Which of the following contains the myosin binding site?
  85. Troponin
  86. Tropomyosin
  87. Myosin
  88. Actin
  89. What anchors to the ends of thick filaments to keep them attached to the Z discs?
  90. Collagen filaments
  91. Elastic filaments
  92. Actin filaments
  93. Dystrophin
  94. When a muscle contracts the myofilaments change length.
  95. TRUE
  96. FALSE
  97. Cell bodies of skeletal nerves are found where?
  98. Spinal cord
  99. Brain stem
  100. Intervertebral foramina
  101. A & B
  102. A & C
  103. When the neuron fires all the muscle fibers innervated by it, this is called..
  104. Motor neuron
  105. Motor unit
  106. Motor end plate
  107. Motor nerve
  108. Precise motion requires a motor neuron to…
  109. Innervate as many muscle fibers as possible
  110. Innervate many muscle fibers from only a few muscle groups
  111. Innervate many muscle fibers from many muscle groups
  112. Innervate only a few fibers of a muscle group
  113. All motor neurons work at the same time.
  114. TRUE
  115. FALSE
  116. A difference in electrical charge is called ….
  117. A current
  118. Electrical potential
  119. Excitation
  120. Depolarization
  121. Where does excitation of the muscle occur?
  122. T tubule
  123. Terminal cisternae
  124. Sarcoplasm
  125. Neuromuscular junction
  126. What signals the opening of voltage gated calcium channels on the synaptic knob?
  127. Nothing, calcium moves passively
  128. Nothing, calcium will move down its concentration gradient
  129. The action potential
  130. Acetylcholine
  131. Acetylcholine enters the synaptic cleft via
  132. Endocytosis of the synaptic vesicle
  133. Exocytosis through a transport protein
  134. The synaptic vesicle binding with the plasma membrane and doing pinocytosis
  135. The synaptic vesicle binding with the plasma membrane and doing exocytosis
  136. Once in the cleft, acetylcholine binds with receptors on which kind of transmembrane protein in the sarcolemma?
  137. Calcium voltage gated channels
  138. Potassium voltage gated channels
  139. Chemically gated ion channels
  140. Sodium voltage gated channels
  141. Sarcolemma next to the motor end plate have voltage gated ion channels that open in response to
  142. End-plate potential
  143. Calcium deficiency
  144. Acetylcholine esterase
  145. Sodium/ Potassium pumps
  146. Acetylcholine enters the muscle.
  147. TRUE
  148. FALSE
  149. When sodium voltage gated channels open and sodium floods the inside of the cell, what happens to the electrical potential of the membrane?
  150. It is repolarized
  151. It is depolarized
  152. It is remaining constant
  153. Sodium voltage gated channels have no effect on electrical potential
  154. When the action potential travels down the T tubules it opens ______in the terminal cisternae.
  155. Opens sodium voltage gated channels
  156. Opens potassium voltage gated channels
  157. Opens sodium potassium pumps
  158. Opens calcium voltage gated channels
  159. Calcium released from the terminal cisternae binds to ______of the thin filaments.
  160. Tropomyosin
  161. Myosin binding site
  162. Troponin
  163. ATP binding site to release ADP and Pi
  164. A conformational change in troponin causes tropomyosin to….
  165. Turn into actin
  166. Expose myosin binding sites
  167. Expose actin binding sites
  168. Expose calcium binding sites
  1. What is needed to release the myosin head from actin?
  2. ADP and Pi
  3. Actin binding site must deteriorate
  4. Myosin binding site deteriorates
  5. ATP
  6. What enzyme is needed to break down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
  7. ATPase
  8. Synaptic cholinerase
  9. Synaptic kinase
  10. Acetylcholine esterase
  11. Acetylecholineaminase
  12. Calcium is returned to the terminal cisternae during relaxation by utilizing
  13. Passive transport calcium pump
  14. Facilitated transport calcium pump
  15. Active transport calcium pump
  16. Acetylcholine esterase
  17. When calcium is reabsorbed into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, what happens to the thin myofilament?
  18. It’s myosin binding sites are covered by troponin
  19. It’s myosin binding sites are covered by tropomyosin
  20. It’s actin binding sites are covered by troponin
  21. It’s actin binding sites are covered by tropomyosin
  22. Rigor mortis can be best described as…
  23. deterioration of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that activates crossbridges to form without production of ATP to break them up
  24. Deterioration of troponin preventing myosin binding sites to be revealed, thus myosin cannot for a crossbridge
  25. Deterioration of myosin head which prevents the power stroke from occurring during contraction
  26. Excessive stiffening due to insufficient release of calcium from the terminal cisternae.
  27. Botulism can cause potentially fatal muscular paralysis because it….
  28. Prevents acetylcholine from being broken up by acetylcholine esterase
  29. Blocks voltage gated calcium channels on the synaptic knob, preventing them from opening
  30. Prevents the release of acetylcholine at the synaptic knob
  31. Enhances the release of acetylcholine on the synaptic knob.
  32. Botox permanently paralyses facial muscles to prevent wrinkles.
  33. TRUE
  34. FALSE
  35. When antibodies attack the neuromuscular junction by binding to Ach receptors which fatigue the muscle quickly is known as…
  36. Compartment syndrome
  37. Sarin poisoning
  38. Myasthenia gravis
  39. Botulism
  40. Which of the following is a very potent acetylcholine esterase inhibitor?
  41. Botulismb. Botox

c. Sarined. Calcium