Botany:

  1. Which photosystem does the plant follows during the dark phase?
  1. Photosystem 1.
  2. Photosystem 2.
  3. None.
  4. Both.
  1. What is the main role of transpiration in plants?
  1. To cool.
  2. To remove excess water.
  3. None.
  4. Both A and B.
  1. In which of the following xylem is not found?
  1. Vascular Bundle.
  2. Vascular Cambium.
  3. Cortex.
  4. Both A and B.
  1. The following cells are said to be associated with the phloem:
  1. Seive Cells.
  2. Mesophyll cells.
  3. Cambium cells.
  4. Cortex cells.
  1. Which of the following is not the function of Phloem?
  1. Transport organic molecules.
  2. Transport food.
  3. Transport water.
  4. None.
  1. What is the function of abscisic acid as a hormone in plants?
  1. Helps in abscission.
  2. Helps in germination.
  3. Role in dormancy.
  4. All the above.
  1. Ethylene helps in?
  1. Breaking seed dormancy.
  2. Abscision.
  3. Ripening of fruits.
  4. All the above.
  1. The first genetically modified food crop?
  1. Bread wheat.
  2. Golden Rice.
  3. Antibiotic resistant tobacco plant.
  4. Bt Cotton.
  1. Out of the following which is not the advantage of FlavrSavr tomato?
  1. Increases the shelf life.
  2. Rich in vitamin.
  3. More taste.
  4. Produces antibiotic.
  1. Who is the father of Botany?
  1. Antony von Leuwenhoek.
  2. Robert Cook.
  3. Charles Darwin.
  4. Thephrastus.
  1. What is the type of venation seen in monocot plants?
  1. Parallel.
  2. Reticulate.
  3. Can’t say.
  4. Both.
  1. Plant showing Hypogeal germination:
  1. Pea.
  2. Mango.
  3. Bean.
  4. All the above.
  1. Dicots show
  1. Hypogeal germination.
  2. Epigeal germination.
  3. Can’t say.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following requires energy?
  1. Active transport.
  2. Diffusion.
  3. Osmosis.
  4. Passive transport.
  1. Passive absorbtion of minerals depend on?
  1. Conc. Of minerals.
  2. Water content.
  3. Water gradient.
  4. Mineral gradient.
  1. The layer of cells between epidermis and vascular bundles is?
  1. Pith.
  2. Cortex.
  3. Mesophyll.
  4. Xylem.
  1. Water Vascular system is found in?
  1. Echinoderms.
  2. Mesophtes.
  3. Hydrophytes.
  4. Xerophytes.
  1. Ecosystem is?
  1. Anecosystemis acommunity of living organisms.
  2. Anecosystemis acommunity of non- living organisms.
  3. Anecosystemis acommunity of living and non-living organisms.
  4. None.
  1. Tyloses are?
  1. Out Growth on parenchyma cells.
  2. Produced during drought or infection.
  3. Cause damage to the plant.
  4. A and B both.
  1. Photosynthesis depends on?
  1. Atmospheric pressure.
  2. Amount of atmospheric Nitrogen.
  3. Light.
  4. Amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
  1. How do rhizopus reproduce?
  1. Sporangiospores.
  2. Basidiospores.
  3. Conidiospores.
  4. Zoospores.
  1. What causes late blight potatoes?
  1. Phytophytorainfestans.
  2. Agrobacteriumtumefaciens.
  3. Phytophytoraramotum.
  4. Phytophytorasojae.
  1. What are the final products in the aerobic respiration of plants?
  1. Oxygen.
  2. ATP.
  3. GTP.
  4. Both A and B.
  1. By increasing humidity:
  1. Transpiration increases.
  2. Transpiration is unaffected.
  3. Transpiration decreases.
  4. Can’t say.
  1. Does photosynthesis occurs in dark?
  1. Yes.
  2. No.
  3. Can’t say.
  4. For some time.
  1. The most abundant polymer in plants?
  1. Glucose.
  2. Cellulose.
  3. Lignin.
  4. Hemi-cellulose.
  1. What is absiscion?
  1. Regneration of new leaves.
  2. Falling of leaves.
  3. None.
  4. Both.
  1. What is the function of vacuoles?
  1. To store water.
  2. Store enzymes.
  3. Store food.
  4. Regulate shape.
  1. Pine is?
  1. Decidious.
  2. Evergreen.
  3. Soft wood.
  4. Both B and C.
  1. How many times does a bamboo flowers in its life time?
  1. Twice.
  2. Never.
  3. Once.
  4. Thrice.
  1. Which of the following is a monocotyledons?
  1. Mango.
  2. Pea.
  3. Bean.
  4. Corn.
  1. What is the scientific name of potato?
  1. Solanacearosa.
  2. Solanaceaaureus.
  3. Solanacea tuberose.
  4. Solanacae tuber.
  1. Hemicellulose is ?
  1. Homopolymer.
  2. Heteropolymer.
  3. Soluble.
  4. Non polymer.
  1. Quinine is used for the treatment of?
  1. Tuberculosis.
  2. Vomiting.
  3. Malaria.
  4. Asthma.
  1. Lichen is?
  1. Mycobiant.
  2. Phycobiant.
  3. Either one.
  4. Combination of both.
  1. Streptomycin is?
  1. Fungicidal.
  2. Pesticidal.
  3. Anti-biotic.
  4. Both and C.
  1. Penicillin is a?
  1. Antibiotic.
  2. Sedative.
  3. Tranquilizer.
  4. None.
  1. Overgrazing in animal cause?
  1. Deforestation.
  2. Barren lands.
  3. Overexploitation.
  4. Flooding.
  1. In a perteidish with water raisins are kept for few hours. raisins increase in size is due to:
  1. Osmosis.
  2. Diffusion.
  3. Both A and B.
  4. Active transport.
40.Stomata in moss is present on:
A.Stem.
B.Leaves.
C.Upper surface.
D.Lower surface.
41.If genes for two different traits are located on the same chromosome , they are said to be:
A.Allels.
B.Linkage.
C.Both A and B.
D.None.
  1. Premature leaf fall is due to the deficiency of:
  1. High level of iron.
  2. High level of calcium.
  3. High level of absiscic acid.
  4. All.
  1. The edible fungi are?
  1. Puffballs.
  2. Mushrooms.
  3. Rhizopus.
  4. Bread fungi.
  1. Doule fertilization means?
  1. One sperm fertilizes the egg cell and the other sperm combines with the two polar nuclei.
  2. Found in angiosperms.
  3. Both A and B.
  4. None.
  1. Organelles for protein synthesis:
  1. Golgi apparatus.
  2. Nuclei.
  3. Ribosomes.
  4. E.R.
  1. What are halophytes?
  1. Those growing in water.
  2. Those growing in dessert.
  3. Those growing on other plants.
  4. Those growing on saline marshes.
  1. Cell membrane is composed of:
  1. Proteins.
  2. Lipids.
  3. Carbohydrates.
  4. Both lipids and proteins.
  1. Transpiration is highest in which of the following cases:
  1. High humidity.
  2. Low temperature.
  3. High water availability.
  4. Low air currents.
  1. Which of the following disease is caused by bacteria?
  1. Bluberry disease.
  2. Downy mildew.
  3. Brown rot.
  4. Apple scab.
  1. What are parasites?
  1. That live on others.
  2. On which others live.
  3. That live in others.
  4. None.

Zoology

  1. Who is the father of zoology?
  1. Theoprastus.
  2. Charles Darwin.
  3. Aristotle.
  4. Robert Hook.
  1. Binomial system of nomenclature was forwarded by?
  1. An ton von Leuwenhoek.
  2. Carlos Linnaeus.
  3. Robert Koch.
  4. Robert Hooke.
  1. Whittaker gave forward the:
  1. 5 kingdom of classification.
  2. Classified Monera.
  3. Classified Protista.
  4. None.
  1. Charles Darwin gave forward:
  1. Survival of the fittest.
  2. Evolution.
  3. Biogenesis.
  4. Abiogenesis.
  1. Scientific name of tiger?
  1. Pantheratigris.
  2. Naga naga.
  3. Pantheraonca.
  4. Feliscatus.
  1. Organelle present in animals but not in plants?
  1. Nucleolus.
  2. Mitochondria.
  3. Leucoplast.
  4. Lysosome.
  1. Meiosis produces :
  1. 2 cells.
  2. 6 cells.
  3. 4 cells.
  4. 1 cell.
  1. TCA stands for:
  1. Tri carboxlic acid cycle.
  2. Tri carbon anhydrous.
  3. Tri carbonic acid cycle.
  4. None.
  1. Who discovered the cow pox vaccine?
  1. Alexander.
  2. Robert Koch.
  3. Edward Jenner.
  4. None.
  1. What is nude mice?
  1. Mice with no body hair.
  2. Mice with no hormone.
  3. Mice which is unable to reproduce.
  4. Mice without thymus.
  1. Enzymes are?
  1. Proteins.
  2. Lipids.
  3. Carbohydrates.
  4. Vitamins.
  1. Leukemia is ?
  1. Blood disease.
  2. A type of cancer.
  3. Genetic disease.
  4. Inherited disese.
  1. Down syndrome is due to?
  1. Trisomy in 21 chromosome.
  2. Triosomy in 23rd chromosome.
  3. Triosomy in 14th chromosome.
  4. Triosomy in 22nd chromosome.
  1. No of chromosome in domestic cat?
  1. 24.
  2. 36.
  3. 42.
  4. 38.
  1. What causes mad cow disease?
  1. Bacteria.
  2. Fungi.
  3. Parasite.
  4. Prion.
  1. Trichocysts occur in?

A.Ciliates.

B.Dinoflagellates.

C.Algae.

D.Both A and B.

  1. Mitotic chromosome have:

A.Telomere.

B.Centromere.

C.Both

D.None.

  1. Arrange the following in series

1.Prop

2. Ana

3. Meta

4. Karo

A. 1-2-3-4.

B. 1-4-3-2.

C. 3-2-4-1.

D. 4-3-2-1.

  1. Folic acid is taken for:
  1. Increasing the blood in the body.
  2. Increase dna synthesis.
  3. Increase the iron content in the body.
  4. All the above.
  1. Widal test is for:
  1. Asthma.
  2. Tuberculosis.
  3. Kala azar.
  4. Malaria.
  1. Chromosome doubling occurs in:
  1. Metaphase.
  2. Anaphase.
  3. Prophase.
  4. Telophase.
  1. Human genome project completed in:
  1. 1990.
  2. 2000.
  3. 2003.
  4. 2012.
  1. No of amino acid:
  1. 20.
  2. 64.
  3. 40.
  4. 18.
  1. Amino acid with only one genetic codon:
  1. Methionine.
  2. Arginine.
  3. Tyrosine.
  4. Valine.
  1. Which of the following is not a stopcodon:
  1. UAA.
  2. UGA.
  3. UAG.
  4. ACU.
  1. What is central dogama?
  1. DNA- Protein-RNA.
  2. Protein- RNA-DNA.
  3. DNA-RNA-Protein.
  4. None.
  1. Enzymes in DNA replication:
  1. Helicase.
  2. Gyrase.
  3. Restriction endonuclease.
  4. Phosphatase.
  1. What is gene silencing:
  1. Gene therapy.
  2. Introducing RNA.
  3. None.
  4. All.
  1. Translation occurs in:
  1. Nucleus.
  2. Nucleolus.
  3. Cytoplasm.
  4. Mitochondria.
  1. Hypothyroxine leads to:
  1. Goiter.
  2. Obesity.
  3. Loss in weight.
  4. None.
  1. Albinism is:
  1. Dwarfism.
  2. Long limbs and facial bones.
  3. Lack of pigment in eye, hair or skin.
  4. None.
  1. Heterozygote twins are:
  1. Look alike.
  2. Look different.
  3. Are from different mother.
  4. Are from same egg.
  1. What are PCO?
  1. Poly cystic ovaries.
  2. Please co-operate ourselves.
  3. None.
  4. Both.
  1. Which of the following is a STD?
  1. Aids.
  2. Syphilis.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Tubectomy is?
  1. Birth control surgery for males.
  2. Birth control surgery for females.
  3. Surgery for giving birth.
  4. None.
  1. Abortion is suggested within the:
  1. 3 months of pregnancy.
  2. 2 months of pregnancy.
  3. 6 months of pregnancy.
  4. 3 weeks of pregnancy.
  1. Iron part of haemoglobin?
  1. Heam.
  2. Globin.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Universal donors are:
  1. A
  2. B
  3. O
  4. AB
  1. Cancer causing genes:
  1. Oncogens.
  2. 18th chromosome.
  3. 23rd chromosome.
  4. None.
  1. Mosquito carries:
  1. Plasmodium.
  2. Sleeping disease.
  3. None.
  4. Both.
  1. Natality refers to:
  1. Live rate.
  2. Death rate.
  3. Babies death rate.
  4. Babies live rate.
  1. Phase of rapid cell division:
  1. Log phase.
  2. Lag phase.
  3. Stationary phase.
  4. Death phase.
  1. Example of X linked inheritance:
  1. Night blindness.
  2. Colour blindness.
  3. Hemophilia.
  4. Both B and C.
  1. Thalesemia is:
  1. Blood disease.
  2. A type of cancer.
  3. Genetic disease.
  4. None.
  1. Glycosylation occurs in:
  1. Mitochondria.
  2. Cytosol.
  3. Nucleus.
  4. None.
  1. Responsible for colour vision:
  1. Rods.
  2. Cones.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Total no. of bones in humans:
  1. 208
  2. 206
  3. 306
  4. 308
  1. The common disease in humans:
  1. Common cold.
  2. Diarhoea.
  3. Asthma.
  4. Allergy.
  1. What is bradycardia?
  1. High beat rate.
  2. Low beat rate.
  3. No beating at all.
  4. None.
  1. Pulse rate of a new born:
  1. 72.
  2. 75.
  3. 100.
  4. 100-150.

Chemistry:

  1. Water has:
  1. Metallic bond.
  2. Hydrogen bond.
  3. Covalent bond.
  4. Ionic bond.
  1. Last element in the periodic table:
  1. Uuo.
  2. Uus.
  3. Uup.
  4. None.
  1. The most abundant element on earths crust:
  1. Iron.
  2. Aluminium.
  3. Silica.
  4. All.
  1. Hyperventillation will cause:
  1. Respiratory alkalosis.
  2. Decrease in blood pH.
  3. Increase in blood pH.
  4. Acidity in stomach.
  1. Which of the following solution is a buffer?
  1. Acetic acid and sodium sulphate.
  2. Acetic acid and sodium acetate.
  3. Hydrochloric acid sodium sulphate.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following is the weakest acid?
  1. Sulphuric acid.
  2. Hydrochloric acid.
  3. Nitric acid.
  4. Acetic acid.
  1. Acetic acid is a weak acid in water because:
  1. Dilute.
  2. Slightly soluble.
  3. Slightly dissociated.
  4. Completely dissociated.
  1. A brownsted Lowry acid is a substance:
  1. Produces hydrogen ion in aqueous solution.
  2. Produces hydroxide ion in aqueous solution.
  3. Donates protons to other substances.
  4. Accepts protons from other substances.
  1. Which of the following is a diprotic acid?
  1. Acetic acid.
  2. Hydrochloric acid.
  3. Phosphoric acid.
  4. Sulphuric acid.
  1. Which has the highest boiling point?
  1. 0.1M Na2SO4.
  2. 0.1M glucose.
  3. 0.1M MgCl2.
  4. 0.1M Al(NO3)3.
  1. Normal RBC will shrink when placed in:
  1. 0.15 osmal glucose.
  2. 0.3 osmalNaCl.
  3. 0.15M NaCl.
  4. 0.15M Glucose.
  1. Which solution has highest osmolarity:
  1. 0.6 M NaCl.
  2. 0.35 M AlCl3.
  3. 0.14 M KF.
  4. 0.2 MCaBr2.
  1. In gout disease uric acid is deposited when:
  1. Conc. in blood exceeds unsaturated level.
  2. Conc. In blood reaches saturated level.
  3. Conc. in blood equals saturated level.
  4. Solubility of uric acid increases in blood.
  1. What is a catalyst?
  1. Decreases H.
  2. Increases H.
  3. Decreases activation energy.
  4. Increases activation energy.
  1. Entropy of the universe:
  1. Increases.
  2. Decreases.
  3. Remains the same.
  4. Changes from time to time.
  1. Threshold energy is:
  1. Minimum amount of energy required for a reaction to start.
  2. Amount of energy required for the continuation of a reaction.
  3. Amount of energy supplied.
  4. Amount of energy liberated.
  1. Oxidation no. of chlorine in FeCl3 is:
  1. -3
  2. -2
  3. -1
  4. +2
  1. What is the strongest attractive force between CHCl3:
  1. Hydrogen bond.
  2. Dipole-dipole bond.
  3. Dipole induced bond.
  4. London forces.
  1. Which of the following shows the highest no of Hydrogen bonding:
  1. CH2OH
  2. H2
  3. CH4
  4. HCl
  1. When two atom share a pair of electron the bond thus formed is :
  1. Double covalent.
  2. Double ionic.
  3. Single covalent.
  4. Single Ionic.
  1. What is the angle of H-O-H in water?
  1. 180
  2. 109-180
  3. 90-109
  4. 90
  1. Bond having most polar character:
  1. C-C.
  2. C-H.
  3. C-N.
  4. C-O.
  1. Which is a polyatomic cation:
  1. Sulphate ion.
  2. Chlorine ion.
  3. Ammonium ion.
  4. Magnesium ion.
  1. How many sub shells are present in the second shell of an atom?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  1. An element has atomic no. 10, what is its characteristic?
  1. Inert.
  2. Monovalent.
  3. Bivalent.
  4. Trivalent.
  1. The maximum no of electrons in an orbit?
  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  1. Which transition element help in transport of oxygen in humans:
  1. Cu
  2. Fe
  3. Zn
  4. Mn
  1. What are isotopes?
  1. Have same at. No.
  2. Have same at wt.
  3. Have same at no. but different at wt.
  4. None.
  1. Formula of the compound formed between Li and Br:
  1. LiBr
  2. Li2Br
  3. LiBr2
  4. Li2Br3
  1. Which of the following is a bleaching agent?
  1. Chlorine.
  2. Oxygen.
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Both A and B.
  1. What is water of crystallization?
  1. Chemically attached water.
  2. Adsorbed water.
  3. Crystallized water.
  4. None.
  1. Application of acetone:
  1. In deodorant.
  2. As a preservative.
  3. In nail polish remover.
  4. For polishing surfaces.
  1. Most abundant element on earth:
  1. Nitrogen.
  2. Oxygen.
  3. Argon.
  4. Neon.
  1. Diamond is made up of:
  1. Sulphur.
  2. Carbon.
  3. Silicon.
  4. None.
  1. H2S has a characteristic, smell what is it?
  1. Pungent.
  2. Foul.
  3. Odorless.
  4. Rotten egg.
  1. Difference in the physical property of water and hydrogen sulphide is:
  1. Metallic bond.
  2. Ionic bond.
  3. Covalent bond.
  4. Hydrogen bond.
  1. Colour of Calcium on platinum wire if heated:
  1. Brick red.
  2. Pink.
  3. Whitish blue.
  4. Green.
  1. ______has a fruity smell:
  1. Esters.
  2. Ethers.
  3. Ketone.
  4. Glycerol.
  1. Endothermic reaction results in:
  1. Absorbtion of heat.
  2. Evolution of heat.
  3. Adsorbtion of heat.
  4. None.
  1. Entropy is used to:
  1. Measure the rate of reaction.
  2. Measure the dis-oderness.
  3. Both A and B.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following decreases the rate of reaction?
  1. Increase in temp.
  2. Increase in reactant.
  3. Increase in volume.
  4. None.
  1. CO results in:
  1. Unconsciousness.
  2. Vomiting
  3. Nausea.
  4. Death.
  1. What is Gay Lussac’s Law?
  1. P increases, V increases at constant T.
  2. P increases, V decreases at constant T.
  3. T increase, P decreases at constant V.
  4. T increase, P increase at constant V.
  1. STP atand for?
  1. Standard temp. pressure.
  2. Standard tips for preparartion.
  3. Standard time planning.
  4. None.
  1. 1 Bar is equal to:
  1. 100,000 Pa.
  2. .9872 atm.
  3. 1000mbar.
  4. All.
  1. Atomic mass of Nitrogen:
  1. 14.
  2. 28.
  3. 27.
  4. 29.
  1. The most abundant element of the earth’s atmosphere:
  1. Oxygen.
  2. Nitrogen.
  3. Sulphur.
  4. Neon.
  1. Detergets consists of:
  1. Sodium.
  2. Phosphates.
  3. Pottasium.
  4. All.
  1. What are soaps main constituents?
  1. Sodium.
  2. Pottasium.
  3. Phosphates.
  4. All.
  1. What are reducing agents?
  1. Electron acceptors.
  2. Electron donors.
  3. None.
  4. Both.

Physics:

1) If you push for an hour against a stationary wall, you do no work
A) on the wall. B)at all. C) both of these D) none of these
2) If you push an object twice as far while applying the same force you do
A) twice as much work.
B) four times as much work.
C) the same amount of work.
3) If you push an object just as far while applying twice the force you do
A) twice as much work.
B) four times as much work.
C) the same amount of work.
4) If you push an object with twice the work input for twice the time, your power input is
A) twice.
B) four times as much.
C) the same amount as for half the work in half the time.
5) A job is done slowly, while an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same amount of work, but different amounts of
A) energy. B)power. C)both of these. D)none of these.
6) If you do work on an object in half the usual time, your power output is
A) half the usual power output.
B) the usual power output.
C) twice the usual power output.
7) Exert 1 N for a distance of 1 m in 1 s and you deliver a power of
A) 1 W.
B) 2 W.
C) 1/3 W.
D) 3 W.
E) none of these.
8) Do 100 J of work in 50 s and your power output is
A) 1/4 W.
B) 1/2 W.
C) 2 W.
D) 4 W.
E) more than 4 W.
9) When an object is raised above the ground it gains a certain amount of potential energy. If the same object is raised twice as high it gains
A) four times as much potential energy.
B) twice as much potential energy.
C) neither of these.
10) When an object is lifted 10 meters, it gains a certain amount of potential energy. If the same object is lifted 20 meters, its potential energy gain is
A) less.
B) the same.
C) twice as much.
D) four times as much.
E) more than 4 times as much.
11) A 1000-kg car and a 2000-kg car are hoisted the same distance in a gas station. Raising the more massive car requires
A) less work.
B) as much work.
C) twice as much work.
D) four times as much work.
E) more than 4 times as much work.
12) An object that has kinetic energy must be
A) moving.
B) falling.
C) at an elevated position.
D) at rest.
E) none of these.
13) An object that has potential energy may have this energy because of its
A) speed.
B) acceleration.
C) momentum.
D) location.
E) none of these.
14) Bullets are fired from an airplane in the forward direction of motion. The momentum of the airplane willbe
A) decreased. B)unchanged. C)increased.
15) A clerk can lift containers a vertical distance of 1 meter or canrollthem up a 2 meter-long ramp to the same elevation. With the ramp, the applied force required is about
A) half as much. B) twice as much. C)the same.
16) A bow is drawn so that it has 40 J of potential energy. When fired, the arrow will ideally have a kinetic energy of
A) less than 40 J. B) more than 40 J. C) 40 J.
17) When a car is braked to a stop, its kinetic energy is transformed to
A) stopping energy.
B) potential energy.
C) energy of motion.
D) energy of rest.
E) heat.
18) A hydraulic press, like a simple lever, properly arranged is capable of multiplying energy input.
A) sometimes true B) always false C) always true
19) A hydraulic press, like a simple lever, properly arranged is capable of multiplying force input.
A) true B) false
A marble is rolling back and forth along the path shown.
Figure 7-A
20) At position A, is the marble's kinetic energy less than, greater than, or the same as its kinetic energy when it is at B?
A) less B) greater C) the same
A small ball tied to a string swings without air resistance, beginning from rest at point A.
The string snags on a nail at point P, causing the ball to move in a small circle.
Figure 7-B
21) The ball has maximum potential energy at point
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E.
22) The ball has maximum kinetic energy at point
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E.
23) The ball has maximum speed at point
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E.
A small bead slides without friction along the wire shown here, beginning at point A.
The wire does not touch itself at point C, so the bead has room to slide past that point.
Figure 7-C
24) The bead has maximum kinetic energy at point
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) F.
25) The bead has maximum potential energy at point
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) F.
26) The bead has maximum speed at point
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) F.
27) No work is done by gravity on a bowling ball that rolls along a bowling alley because
A) no force acts on the ball.
B) no distance is covered by the ball.
C) the force on the ball is at right angles to the ball's motion.
D) no potential energy is being converted to kinetic energy.
E) its kinetic energy remains constant.
28) Which requires more work: lifting a 50-kg sack vertically 2 meters or lifting a 25-kg sack vertically 4 meters?
A) lifting the 50-kg sack
B) lifting the 25-kg sack
C) Both require the same amount of work.
29) A 50-kg sack is lifted 2 meters in the same time as a 25-kg sack is lifted 4 meters. The power expended in raising the 50-kg sack compared to the power used to lift the 25-kg sack is
A) twice as much. B)half as much. C)the same.
30) A TV set is pushed a distance of 2 m with a force of 20 N that is in the same direction as the set moves. How much work is done on the set?
A) 2 J B) 10 J C) 20 J D) 40 J E) 80 J
31) It takes 40 J to push a large box 4 m across a floor. Assuming the push is in the same direction as the move, what is the magnitude of the force on the box?
A) 4 N
B) 10 N
C) 40 N
D) 160 N
E) none of these
32) A 2-kg mass is held 4 m above the ground. What is the approximate potential energy of the mass with respect to the ground?
A) 20 J
B) 40 J
C) 60 J
D) 80 J
E) none of these.
33) A 2-kg mass has 40 J of potential energy with respect to the ground. Approximately how far is it located above the ground?
A) 1 m
B) 2 m
C) 3 m
D) 4 m
E) none of these
34) A heavy pile driver starting from rest falls on a pile with a force that depends on
A) the original height of the driver.
B) the original potential energy of the driver.
C) the distance the pile is moved.
D) all of these.
E) none of these.
35) Using 1000 J of work, a toy elevator is raised from the ground floor to the second floor in 20 seconds. How much power does the elevator use?
A) 20 W B) 50 W C) 100 W D) 1000 W E) 20,000 W
36) One end of a long, uniform log is raised to shoulder level. Another identical log is raised at its center to the same level. Raising the second log requires about
A) the same amount of work.
B) twice as much work.
C) more than twice as much work.
37) Two identical arrows, one with twice the kinetic energy of the other, are fired into a hay bale. The faster arrow will penetrate
A) the same distance as the slower arrow.
B) twice as far as the slower arrow.
C) four times as far as the slower arrow.
D) more than four times as far as the slower arrow.
E) none of these.
38) A car moves 4 times as fast as another identical car. Compared to the slower car, the faster car has
A) 4 times the KE. B) 8 times the KE.
C) 12 times the KE.D) 16 times the KE.
39) A ball is projected into the air with 100 J of kinetic energy which is transformed to gravitational potential energy at the top of its trajectory. When it returns to its original level after encountering air resistance, its kinetic energy is
A) less than 100 J. B) more than 100 J.
C) 100 J. D) not enough information given.
40) Strictly speaking, if any electrical device in your car is turned on (such as an air conditioner, headlights, or even a radio) more gasoline is burned by the engine. This statement is
A) totally false.
B) true only if the car's engine is running.
C) true only if the car's engine is stopped.
D) almost always true.
E) none of these.
41) A machine puts out 100 Watts of power for every 1000 Watts put into it. The efficiency of the machine is
A) 10%.
B) 50%.
C) 90%.
D) 110%.
E) none of these.
42) An ungloved fist will do more damage to a jaw than a gloved fist. The reason for this is that the ungloved fist
A) delivers a larger impulse to the jaw. B)exerts a larger force on the jaw.
C) has less air resistance on it. D)none of these.
43) A woman lifts a box from the floor. She then moves with constant speed to the other side of the room, where she puts the box down. How much work does she do on the box while walking across the floor at constant speed?
A) zero J
B) more than zero J
C) more information needed to determine
44) A car moving at 50 km/hr skids 20 m with locked brakes. How far will the car skid with locked brakes if it is traveling at 150 km/hr?
A) 20 m B) 60 m C) 90 m D) 120 m E) 180 m
45) Which has greater kinetic energy, a car traveling at 30 km/hr or a car of half the mass traveling at 60 km/hr?
A) the 30 km/hr car
B) the 60 km/hr car
C) Both have the same kinetic energy.
46) A diver who weighs 500 N steps off a diving board that is 10 m above the water. The diver hits the water with kinetic energy of
A) 10 J.
B) 500 J.
C) 510 J.
D) 5000 J.
E) more than 5000 J.
47) Consider a hydraulic press. When the input piston is depressed 20 cm, the output piston is observed to move 1 cm. On the same press, an input force of 1 N can raise no more than
A) 1 N. B) 10 N. C) 20 N. D) 21 N.
48) A 2500-N pile-driver ram falls 10 m and drives a post 0.1 m into the ground. The average impact force on the ram is
A) 2,500 N. B) 25,000 N. C) 250,000 N. D) 2,500,000 N.
49) A pulley system raises a 1000-N load with 100 N of input force. The efficiency of the system is
A) 10%.
B) 90%.
C) 100%.
D) 1000%.
E) not enough information given.
50) A jack system will increase the potential energy of a heavy load by no more than 1000 J with a work input of 2000 J. The efficiency of the jack system is no more than
A) 10%.
B) 20%.
C) 50%.
D) 80%.
E) not enough information given.