Lesson 4
Q1. Radical change, or transformational change, results in a major overhaul of the organization or its component systems.
a. True
b. False
Q2. Context 4, ______, is a transition zone poised between order and chaos. Here, the system must rapidly adjust while maintaining sufficient stability to learn.
a. near the edge of chaos
b. middle of the road
c. on the fence
d. the performance gap
e. None of the above
Q3. The leadership context of ______refers to a dramatic departure from prior practice and sudden threats to high-priority goals with little or no response time.
a. stability
b. crisis
c. retrenchment
d. dynamic equilibrium
e. near the edge of chaos
Q4. When considering the ______, it must be recognized that changes in any one are likely to require or involve changes in the others.
a. forces for change
b. change agents
c. targets of change
d. instruments of change
e. techniques of change
Q5. Which of the following sets represent CLT leadership dimensions?
a. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented
b. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented
c. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven
d. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed
e. top-level, bottom-up, middle, secular
Q6. When successful, the ______results in a longer lasting, more internalized change than does force-coercion.
a. inside-outside strategy
b. rational persuasion strategy
c. top-down change strategy
d. community involvement strategy
e. hierarchical control strategy
Q7. Rehearsal of desired behaviors before actual performance can be useful in moving behaviors toward goal attainment.
a. True
b. False
Q8. Which strategy for planned change is sometimes called a normative-reeducative approach?
a. shared-power strategy
b. collaborative effort strategy
c. lateral control strategy
d. force-coercion strategy
e. rational persuasion strategy
Q9. Within a team, leadership can be assigned to one person, rotated across team members or even shared simultaneously as different needs arise across time.
a. True
b. False
Q10. In order to minimize resistance to change, the people affected by the change should know how the change meets the benefit criterion, which means that the change should ______.
a. have a clear relative advantage for the people being asked to change
b. be as compatible as possible with the existing values and experiences of the people being asked to change
c. capitalize on the relative power positions of those affected by the change and those implementing the change
d. be no more complex than necessary; it must be as easy as possible for people to understand and use
e. be something that people can attempt on a step-by-step basis and make adjustments as things progress
Q11. How might a leader measure success in regard to the leadership context of dynamic equilibrium?
a. By performance on assigned goals
b. Adjustment to crisis; return to normalcy
c. Movement toward successful implementation of proposed change programs
d. Balance of stability and dynamic adaptation to increase fitness
e. None of the above
Q12. Another name for incremental change is ______.
a. subtle change
b. original change
c. frame-bending change
d. basic change
e. temporal change
Q13. ______represent(s) forces for change that deal with adapting the organization's culture and structure as it grows toward maturity.
a. Organization-environment relationships
b. The organizational life cycle
c. The political nature of organizations
d. The technological nature of organizations
e. The structural nature of organizations
Q14. If rule changing and rule following are not properly balanced, there is a danger of reinforcing ______.
a. innovation
b. creativity
c. cultural lag
d. common assumptions
e. shared values
Q15. Resolving the issues of ______helps individuals develop a shared identity and a collective commitment.
a. shared meanings
b. internal integration
c. external adaptation
d. cultural diversity
e. management philosophy
Q16. The means by which creative ideas find their way into everyday practice is called ______.
a. reengineering
b. development
c. innovation
d. modernization
e. integration
Q17. "How do members resolve the daily problems associated with living and working together?" is a cultural question pertaining to the survival issue of ______.
a. institutional adaptation
b. structural adaptation
c. internal integration
d. external adaptation
e. systematic integration
Q18. The multicultural organization is a firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societally based subcultures into the fabric of the organization.
a. True
b. False
Q19. ______are embellished heroic accounts of accomplishments, especially regarding the founding of an organization.
a. Artifacts
b. Sagas
c. Legends
d. Rites
e. Rituals
Q20. Which step in the innovation process focuses on creating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing?
a. Idea creation
b. Initial experimentation
c. Test and retest
d. Feasibility determination
e. Final application
Q21. Managers can modify the ______of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.
a. vocal aspects
b. visible aspects
c. verbal aspects
d. oral aspects
e. written aspects
Q22. The ______culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it.
a. latent
b. shared
c. common
d. observable
e. implicit
Q23. One of the key ways management influences the organizational culture is via the ______.
a. the leaders assigned to top management
b. the people it fires
c. the people it hires
d. performance system is administers
e. reward systems it establishes
Q24. The ______is a firm that values diversity but systematically works to block the transfer of societal based subcultures into the fabric of the organization.
a. counterculture organization
b. subculture dominated organization
c. subordinate culture organization
d. multicultural organization
e. homogeneous organization
Q25. By linking values and actions, the organization taps into some of the strongest and deepest realms of the individual.
a. True
b. False
Q26. ______are parts of the normative controls of the organization and emerge from its daily routines.
a. Organizational strategies
b. Organizational goals
c. Cultural vision and mission
d. Cultural rules and roles
e. Cultural symbols
Q27. New ______enable organizations to broaden the span of control, flatten their formal structures, and still maintain control of their complex operations.
a. employee skills
b. information technologies
c. employee recruiting strategies
d. product design techniques
e. performance goals
Q28. ______controls attempt to specify the manner in which tasks are to be accomplished.
a. Process
b. Output
c. Turnout
d. Production
e. Methods
Q29. ______increases when the discretion to spend money, to hire people, and to make similar decisions is moved farther up the hierarchy of authority.
a. Distribution
b. Dissipation
c. Diffusion
d. Centralization
e. Decentralization
Q30. The accounting and public relations functions of a firm are examples of ______units.
a. facilitator
b. staff units
c. specialty
d. boundary-spanning
e. line
Q31. Beyond substituting for direct management supervision, ______is often used to simplify jobs.
a. systematization
b. institutionalization
c. standardization
d. coordination
e. formalization
Q32. A ______is a guideline for action that outlines important objectives and broadly indicates how an activity is to be performed. It allows for individual discretion and minor adjustments without direct clearance by a higher-level manager.
a. policy
b. rule
c. procedure
d. formula
e. law
Q33. A matrix structure has the disadvantages of being very expensive, losing unity of command, causing overlapping managerial authority and responsibilities, and being difficult to explain to employees.
a. True
b. False
Q34. Most modern organizations use output controls as part of an overall method of managing by exception.
a. True
b. False
Q35. The two basic types of bureaucracies are ______and ______.
a. matrix; functional
b. mechanistic; organic
c. network; matrix
d. functional; divisional
e. mechanistic; departmental
Q36. Organizations that rely heavily on ______may expect the following tendencies to emerge over time: an emphasis on quality from a technical standpoint, rigidity to change, and difficulty in coordinating the actions of different functional areas.
a. divisional departmentation
b. matrix departmentation
c. functional specialization
d. network specialization
e. divisional specialization
Q37. A procedure is a guideline for action that outlines important objectives and broadly indicates how an activity is to be performed.
a. True
b. False
Q38. The ______emphasizes horizontal specialization, extensive use of personal coordination, and loose rules, policies, and procedures.
a. self-managing bureaucracy
b. mechanistic bureaucracy
c. organic bureaucracy
d. functional bureaucracy
e. departmental bureaucracy
Q39. The important mechanisms for retaining useful information are: individuals, culture, transformation mechanisms, formal structures, ecology, external archives, and internal information technologies.
a. True
b. False
Q40. The organizational design that tends to minimize the bureaucratic aspects of design and rest more heavily on the leadership of the manager is the ______.
a. simple design
b. bureaucratic design
c. concentric design
d. functional design
e. hierarchical design
Q41. Starting from the bottom, organizations can be separated into three major zones: 1) the production zone, 2) the employee zone, and 3) the process zone.
a. True
b. False
Q42. In larger firms, additional complexity calls for more ______.
a. technically-oriented employees
b. sophisticated organization designs
c. emphasis on team reward structures
d. the hiring of more employees
e. paying greater compensation to lower level employees
Q43. A research and development laboratory is an example of ______technology.
a. continuous-process
b. bureaucratic
c. intensive
d. long-linked
e. small-batch
Q44. ______is a process that, in part, involves repositioning the firm in its setting as the setting itself changes, the firm's scale of operations expands, and its technology shifts.
a. Mutual relationship management
b. Labor-management cooperation
c. Inside-outside management
d. Co-evolution
e. Co-management
Q45. Complex decision support systems do little to aid middle and lower-level managers in analyzing problems and making decisions.
a. True
b. False
Q46. Successful organizations arrange their ______to meet the dictates of their dominant technologies or workflows and information technology opportunities.
a. reward systems
b. recruiting processes
c. internal structures
d. decision-making processes
e. communications processes
Q47. Joan Woodward's three categories of technology include ______.
a. small-batch production, mass production, and continuous-process technology
b. intensive, mediating, and long-linked
c. straightforward, continuous, and high-intensity
d. intensive, small-batch, and long-linked
e. small-batch, mediating, and continuous
Q48. An example of ______technology is provided by banks that link creditors and depositors and store money and information to facilitate such exchanges.
a. continuous-process
b. mediating
c. intensive
d. long-linked
e. small-batch
Q49. The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more ______form.
a. mechanistic
b. organic
c. bureaucratic
d. hierarchical
e. centralized
Q50. As organizations age and begin to grow beyond the simple design structure, they become ______.
a. more like competitive firms
b. flexible and agile
c. unwieldy
d. larger in size and scope
e. more rigid, inflexible and difficult to change