This test contains 72 multiple-choice items worth 1 point each.
Directions
For each question, select the correct answer and circle it on your answer sheet.
1. Which of the following is a unit of measurement in the metric system?
A. Pound
B. Gram
C. Mile
D. Fahrenheit
2. Which of the following is an example of qualitative observation?
A. Joseph is observing the color difference in the reaction mixture of each of the test samples to see what types of proteins are present in them.
B. Joseph is measuring the color of the reaction mixture colorimetrically to see the concentration of proteins in the sample.
C. Joseph is observing the color of the reaction mixture to see whether proteins are present in the given solution.
3. What would be the first thing you would do if your clothes caught fire while working in a laboratory?
A. Call out to your teacher.
B. Drop and roll on the floor to extinguish the fire.
C. Run toward a source of water to extinguish the fire.
4. Which of the following weighing balances performs measurement in a closed compartment with no air currents to disturb measurement?
A. Spring balance
B. Analytical balance
C. Hydraulic balance
5. A horticulturist plants ten saplings each of 20 different types of plants in his garden. He wants to observe the growth pattern in these samples so that he can later plant them in larger quantities in the community garden. What kind of data analysis would he be using by doing so?
A. Descriptive data analysis
B. Sequential data analysis
C. Inferential data analysis
6. Which of these is an example of quantitative data collection?
A. Recording amounts of chemicals used in an experiment and any temperature changes observed
B. Listing the materials, equipment, and processes required for an experiment
C. Recording color changes and other visible effects observed during an experiment
7. In a molecule of water, how many electrons are shared between each hydrogen atom and an oxygen atom?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
8. Emma extracted some fresh orange juice and mixed it with some water. The result was a cloudy yellow color. When poured through a filter, tiny bits of orange were filtered out. What type of mixture did Emma prepare?
A. Suspension
B. Colloid
C. Solution
9. Why does water heat up and cool down slowly?
A. Water has a low heat of vaporization.
B. Water has a variable thermal potential.
C. Water has a high specific heat.
10. Water and nutrients from the roots reach different parts of the plant. Which property of water is involved here?
A. Water dissolves many substances.
B. Water exhibits capillary action.
C. Water heats and cools slowly.
11. What is the result of dissociation of water?
A. Formation of O-2 ions
B. Formation of H+ and OH- ions
C. Formation of H- and OH+ ions
12. An unknown solution changed the color of a phenolphthalein indicator from colorless to pink. What would you comment about the pH of the unknown solution?
A. The given solution is acidic in nature.
B. The given solution is basic in nature.
C. The given solution is neutral in nature.
13. Pentane with molecular formula C5H12, exists in three isomeric forms. One shows linear carbon chains, another has one -CH3 groups present on the third carbon atom, and the third has two -CH3 groups present on the second carbon atom. What type of isomers are these?
A. Geometric isomers
B. Structural isomers
C. Halotropic isomers
14. A carbon atom has six electrons. How are these electrons shared in its atomic orbital shells?
A. The inner shell contains two electrons and the outer shell contains four electrons.
B. The inner shell contains four electrons and the outer shell contains two electrons.
C. Both shells contain three electrons each.
15. Certain polymers have many start points as well as many end points. What are these polymers called?
A. Linked polymers
B. Linear polymers
C. Branched polymers
16. Plants, through the process of photosynthesis, use solar energy to produce the end product glucose. Since energy is used here, what type of reaction is photosynthesis?
A. Endergonic reaction
B. Exergonic reaction
C. Reversible reaction
17. A marathon runner keeps sipping glucose water at regular intervals. What could be the reason for this?
A. Glucose is an immediate source of energy, which helps the runner regain lost energy.
B. Glucose aids in muscle movement and provides mechanical support, which helps the runner maintain performance over long distances.
C. Glucose has the highest amount of calories as compared to any other energy source, which helps the runner regain lost energy.
18. Human hormones testosterone and estrogen are considered lipids. What could be the reason for this?
A. They are phospholipids.
B. They are fatty acids.
C. They are steroids.
19. If ATP is hydrolyzed in a test tube, which of the following effects indicates that the reaction is exergonic?
A. Release of energy drops the temperature in the test tube.
B. Release of energy has no effect on the surroundings.
C. Release of energy heats the surrounding water in the test tube.
20. Which of the following holds true for energy coupling?
A. Energy is released in an exergonic reaction.
B. Energy is transferred from an exergonic process to an endergonic one.
C. Energy is consumed in an endergonic reaction.
21. Martin is studying sucrase activity. He added sucrose solution + sucrase solution + buffer of pH 5.6 in two tubes. He incubated them at 350C and 1000C respectively. When he performed a confirmatory test, only the first test tube showed enzyme activity. How would you justify the inactivity of the enzyme in the second test tube?
A. The enzymes in the second test tube must have denatured at pH 5.6, since most enzymes work at neutral pH.
B. The enzymes in the second test tube must have denatured at 1000C, since most enzymes degrade at such high temperatures.
C. Enzymes must have remained dormant at 1000C, since most of the enzymes remain inactive at such higher temperatures.
22. The activities of enzymes are determined by their three dimensional structure. Which of the following gives a three dimensional structure to an enzyme?
A. Folds of long, linear chains of amino acids
B. Folds of long, linear chains of fatty acids
C. Folds of long, linear chains of covalent hydrogen bonds
23. Which of the following organelles is common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. Cytoskeleton
B. Nucleus
C. Nucleolus
24. A scientist was observing an unknown slide under an electron microsocope; he found a cell without a well-defined nucleus but with a thick cell wall and ribosomes. What type of cell could it be?
A. Prokaryotic
B. Eukaryotic plant cell
C. Eukaryotic animal cell
25. Both bacteria and amoeba are unicellular organisms. Bacteria are considered to be prokaryotes, whereas amoebas are considered to be eukaryotes. How will you justify this reasoning?
A. Though both are unicellular, bacteria possess a well-defined nucleus without a nucleolus. Amoebas possess a nucleus with a nucleolus, but no nuclear membrane.
B. Though both are unicellular, bacteria possess a well-defined nucleus and all essential cell organelles, whereas amoebas do not possess a nucleus or cell organelles, except ribosomes.
C. Though both are unicellular, bacteria doesn’t possess a nucleus or cell organelles, except ribosomes, whereas amoebas possess a well-defined nucleus and all essential cell organelles.
26. Animal cells are not capable of producing their own food because they lack which organelle?
A. Vacuole
B. Chloroplast
C. Cell wall
27. Salting is used as one of the methods of preserving fish. Justify.
A. Salting of fish leads to diffusion of water from the salt into the fish, making it juicier and helping in preservation of the fish.
B. Salting of fish leads to diffusion of water out of the fish, causing removal of water, making the fish drier, and thus helping in preservation.
C. Salting of fish leads to diffusion of salt out of the fish, making it drier, and thus helping in preservation.
28. Which of the following statements is true according to the Fluid Mosaic model of the cell membrane?
A. The lipid bilayer is sandwiched between two layers of protein.
B. Proteins are embedded in the fluid bilayer of lipids.
C. Carbohydrates are found on both sides of the lipid bilayer.
29. What is the high energy molecule formed at the end of cellular respiration called?
A. ADP
B. ATP
C. NAD
30. Kathy has been exercising vigorously for the past half hour. Her body feels sore and she feels pain in her limbs. What could be the reason for this?
A. Accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles of her limbs
B. Accumulation of alcohol in the muscles of her limbs
C. Accumulation of CO2 in the muscles of her limbs
31. In what way are the processes of respiration and photosynthesis linked with each other?
A. The carbohydrates produced by plants in the process of photosynthesis are metabolized by animals in the process of respiration.
B. The carbohydrates produced by animals in the process of photosynthesis are used by animals in the process of respiration.
C. The carbohydrates produced by animals in the process of respiration are used by plants in the process of respiration.
32. Jane filled one transparent bottle and one brown bottle of the same capacity with pond water. She kept the first bottle in sunlight and the second one in the dark. After one hour she calculated the amount of oxygen present in both the bottles. What will be her observation?
A. In the transparent bottle, the algae and small plants present in the pond water utilize oxygen for photosynthesis. In the brown bottle, due to darkness they cannot utilize oxygen dissolved in the water. Therefore, oxygen in the transparent bottle is lesser than that in the brown bottle.
B. In both the bottles the algae and small plants present in the pond water carry out photosynthesis. Therefore, the amount of oxygen in both the bottles remains the same.
C. In the transparent bottle, the algae and small plants present in the pond water release oxygen during photosynthesis, while in the dark bottle, photosynthesis doesn’t occur due to darkness. Therefore, oxygen in the transparent bottle is more than that in the dark bottle.
33. Which event will follow DNA replication in a cell cycle?
A. Nuclear division
B. Chromosome duplication
C. Cytoplasmic division
34. What happens to a cell in the S phase?
A. The nuclear envelope develops around each set of chromosomes.
B. DNA replicates to form two copies of chromosomes.
C. Sister chromatids separate out from the chromosomes.
35. What is the spreading of tumor cells to distant parts of the body via blood and lymph referred to as?
A. Mitosis
B. Metastasis
C. Apoptosis
36. In which phase of the cell cycle do cells grow and synthesize new proteins and organelles?
A. M phase
B. G1 phase
C. S phase
37. A paramecium reproduces by dividing into two daughter cells. Which statement is true of the daughter cells?
A. They are genetically similar to the parent cell.
B. They are genetically identical to the parent cell.
C. They are genetically different from the parent cell.
38. Which statement best compares the role of meiosis in a unicellular and a multicellular organisms?
A. Meiosis is the mechanism used for producing somatic cells in unicellular as well as multicellular organisms.
B. Meiosis is the mechanism used for producing gametes in unicellular organisms and somatic cells in multicellular organisms.
C. Meiosis is the mechanism used for producing gametes in multicellular organisms whereas it does not play any role in unicellular organisms.
39. Which of these options represents the correct flow of events during meiosis II?
A. Sister chromatids pulled to opposite poles, nucleoli form, cytokinesis
B. Sister chromatids pulled to opposite poles, nuclear envelope disappears, cytokinesis
C. Cytokinesis, sister chromatids pulled to opposite poles, nucleoli disappear
40. Which of the following do Meiosis and Mitosis have in common?
A. They are considered to be reduction divisions as the processes result in additional cells.
B. The genetic composition of the daughter cells is identical to the parent cell.
C. In both processes the DNA replicates during interphase.
41. Dimpled chin and free earlobes are two dominant characters in humans. Smooth chin and attached earlobes are recessive characters. A person has the genotype Ddff. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to this genotype?
A. The person is heterozygous for the first character and homozygous for the second.
B. The person is homozygous for the first character and heterozygous for the second.
C. The person is homozygous for both characters.
42. By applying the rules of probability to the following cross, Rr x Rr, determine the probability of the offspring being homozygous recessive?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 3/4
43. In cattle, red coat color is co-dominant to white coat color. What could be the result of a cross between a RR male and a WW female?
A. All the F1 offspring will have red coat color (RRWW).
B. All the F1 offspring will have brown coat color (RRWW).
C. All the F1 offspring will have both red and white colored hair (RRWW).
44. In sweet peas, gene C is responsible for color production and gene P is responsible for the purple color pigment. Both of them are located on two different loci on different chromosomes. The flowers will be purple only when the plant has the genotypes as C_P_. No color will be produced with genotypes: ccPP, ccPp, CCpp, CCPp. Thus, gene C controls the expression of gene P.
What pattern of inheritance is exhibited here?
A. Pleiotropy
B. Epistasis
C. Multiple alleles
45. Why is the frequency of X–linked disorders greater in males compared to females?
A. The X chromosome in a male is more likely to carry a dominant disorder.
B. The Y chromosome does not carry genes to counter a defective gene on an X chromosome.
C. The Y chromosome is only useful in the determination of sex.
46. The genes on a chromosome were represented as ABCDEFGH. After chromosomal breakage the order was found to be ABCEFGH. Which type of change has occurred in chromosomal structure?
A. Deletion
B. Translocation
C. Duplication
47. In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria, Frederick Griffith found that a non-pathogenic strain had been transformed into a pathogenic strain. Which of the following explanations best describes the phenomenon of transformation?
A. It refers to transfer of genetic material between bacteria through direct cell to cell contact.
B. It refers to introduction of genetic material into animal cells.
C. It refers to genetic material taken up from the environment through bacterial cell walls.
48. Scientists have worked on the structure of DNA and one of their revelations is the antiparallel arrangement of DNA strands. Which of the following explanations does not go in accordance with the above statement?
A. The two strands of DNA are oriented in opposite directions to each other.