Part A: Multiple Choice (25 marks) Please answer the following questions on the answer sheet.

  1. In billions of years, approximately, how long had the earth been around when life first appeared?

a)1.0b) 2.0 c) 3.0d) 4.0 e) 5.0

  1. Which of the following events occurred FIRST in evolution?

a)endosymbiotes with mitochondriac) prokaryotes with internal membranes

b) prokaryotes without internal membranesd) endosymbiotes with chloroplasts

  1. Which of the following describes a liposome, a key feature of early life?

a)a protein that can function at high temperatures

b)an RNA molecule that acts like an enzyme to catalyze chemical reactions

c)an enzyme that uses heat to steal electrons from other molecules

d)a sphere formed when lipids are added to water

  1. What was the first of the vertebrate forms to appear on Earth?

a)amphibiansb) reptilesc) fishd) birdse) plants

  1. If a researcher wished to get DNA from a fossil, which would be the BEST source?

a) encrustationb) amber c) gastroliths d) copralitese) permineralization

  1. Which type of fossil tells us most about the detailed features of the soft tissues of a dead organism?

a) carbonaceousb) permineralizationc) replacementd) encrustation

  1. Fossils form best in which one of the following sets of conditions?

a) low H2O, low O2 b) high H2O, high O2c) low H2O, high O2 d) high H2O, low O2

  1. Where did the most impressive direct evidence of evolution come, for Darwin?

a)the limited fossil record

b)work with pigeons and dogs

c)the fit between animal species traits and their habitats

d)homologous structures present in embryological development

  1. The biochemical evidence for evolution is based on the concept that

a)all organisms share identical genomes

b)the more similar the DNA of two species is, the more distantly they are related

c)comparisons of the DNA and proteins of different species indicate the degree to which those species are related

d)the identical genomes of present and extinct organisms suggest that they are descended from a common ancestor

  1. During his 5-year voyage aboard The Beagle, which of the following did Darwin NOT do?

a)witness examples of the geological change in the Earth’s crust

b)collect large numbers of specimens

c)fully develop his theory of natural selection

d)examine fossils

e)visit the Galapagos Islands

  1. Which of the following is true about evolution?

a)individuals evolve but species do notc) individuals and species evolve

b)populations evolve but individuals do notd) populations and individuals evolve

  1. Why is Archaeopteryx (photo to the right) a transitional species?

a)it has characteristics of both reptiles and birds

b)it provides fossil evidence of the only flying dinosaur

c)it is the only dinosaur that is currently alive

d)it demonstrated that dinosaurs evolved from birds

  1. What is the major consequence of the bottleneck effect?

a)A species becomes less common.

b)A species has a reduced genetic diversity.

c)A species occupies a smaller range.

d)A species is more susceptible to a new disease.

  1. According to theory, why were there more dark peppered moths than light peppered moths in the cities of 1850’s England (after the industrial revolution)?

a)the soot from coal fires made the moths darker

b)the soot from coal fires killed the lighter moths

c)the soot from coal fires made the trees darker

d)the soot from coal fires killed the predators of darker moths

  1. A species of flying squirrel inhabited an island. Five hundred years ago, ashes from a nearby volcano killed much of the vegetation, including all the trees. A few squirrels survived. Recently the squirrels were reported to be abundant, living among the rocks and shrubs now covering the island. In the present population, the "flight membranes" are mostly too small to be functional. The most probable explanation for this change is which of the following?

a)a new type of squirrel was introduced to the island

b)natural selection no longer favoured those who could fly

c)the squirrels had no chance to fly so the membranes shrivelled

d)young squirrels were not taught to fly by their parents, so the membranes did not develop

e) all the squirrels that could fly left the island

  1. The term gene flow is defined as of which of the following?

a)any change in gene or allele frequencies in a population

b)a rapid population decrease

c)the establishment of a population in a new region

d)the movement of alleles from one population to another

  1. Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution?

a)the pelvic bone in a whale

b)the beak shape of finches in the Galapagos

c)the gill slits on a pig embryo

d)shape of a tuna & a porpoise

  1. Eriogonum latens and Eriogonum reniforme are two species of wild buckwheat. E. latens grows on dry, stony slopes above 2000 m and flowers from July to August. E. reniforme grows in sandy soils below 1500 m and flowers from March to June. Which statement describes these species of wild buckwheat?

a)they are reproductively isolated

b)they are ecologically isolated

c)they are the result of acquired characteristics

d)they are actually one species that reacts differently to cold temperatures

e) both (a) and (b)

  1. Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?

a)the Galapagos finches

b)Basilosaurus, an ancient relative of the modern whale

c)a giraffe’s neck

d)the breeding of dogs

  1. The Pennsylvania Amish are all descended from a group of Swiss immigrants. What evolutionary term is used to describe their relatedness?

a)allopatric speciation

b)founder effect

c)gene flow

d)directional selection

  1. Which of the following types of mutations is least likely to influence the evolution of a species?

a)a neutral mutation in which a number of genes are duplicated

b)a beneficial mutation that occurs extremely rarely

c)a mutation that is lethal

d)a mutation that is harmful but not lethal

e) a mutation that leads to the formation of an individual with multiple copies of a genome

  1. In North America, there lives a gliding rodent, the flying squirrel. In Australia, there lives a gliding marsupial, the sugar glider. This is an example of:

a)convergent evolutionb) vestigial structuresc) microevolutiond) macroevolution

  1. What is the main difference between punctuated equilibrium and graduated evolution?

a) the number of intermediates is fewer in punctuated equilibrium

b) the size of the changes is smaller in punctuated equilibrium

c) there are more periods without change for punctuated equilibrium

d) the total time from one form to another is longer in punctuated equilibrium

e) the number of intermediates is greater in punctuated equilibrium

  1. Why do gorillas have large canine teeth?

a)the canines are a neutral change that natural selection did not select against

b)the canines are specialized for eating meat

c)the canines are large because their lower jaw protrudes more than in humans

d)the canines are used as a threat display among males

Part B: Matching (19 marks) Please answer the following questions on the answer sheet.

  1. Match the statement on the left with the correct scientist listed on the right. You can use the name of each scientist more than once. (4 marks)

  1. Cuvier

a) wrote an essay “On populations” that suggested more babies are born
than can be fed so the less fit ones die /
  1. Erasmaus Darwin

b) one of the first to propose that species could change over time, and
that these changes could lead to new organisms /
  1. Lamarck

c) postulated the inheritance of acquired traits (changes acquired by an
organism as a result of adaptation could be inherited by future
generations) /
  1. Lyell

d) proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection /
  1. Malthus

  1. Thadeus

  1. Wallace

  1. Match the description on the left with the correct type of natural selection listed on the right. You can use each type of natural selection more than once. (5 marks)

a) With the discovery of antibiotics, the incidence of tuberculosis
(a deadly lung infection) declined. However, a new antibiotic-
resistant strain of the tuberculosis bacterium has evolved, causing a
world health crisis. /
  1. directional selection

b) Gill-net fishing in the Bella Coola River in British Columbia from
1950 to 1974 caused the average weight of salmon to decrease by one
third. Larger fish were more likely to be caught in the nets, while
smaller fish were more likely to escape. /
  1. disruptive selection

c) Humming bird bill length before selection: mean = 32 mm  7 mm,
after selection: mean = 32 mm  3 mm. /
  1. indirect selection

d) The flower of a certain jungle plant smells like rotting flesh in order
to attract flies that pollinate the species. /
  1. sexual selection

e) The male robin has bright red feathers on its breast, while the female
robin lacks this trait. /
  1. stabilizing selection

3. Match the description on the left with the correct reproductive isolating mechanism listed on

the right. You can use each reproductive isolating mechanism more than once. (6 marks)

a) Two populations of bats differ in size and feed on the same flowering plant.
The smaller bats feed only in the morning, and the larger bats feed only at night. / A] behavioural isolation
B] ecological isolation
C] gametic isolation
D] hybrid inviability
E] hybrid infertility
E] mechanical isolation
F] temporal isolation
G] zygotic mortality
b) Donkeys and horses can breed successfully, but their offspring (mules) are sterile.
c) Two sparrows feed on different sized seeds, one preferring to eat in the morning on
the long grass and one feeds in the evening in the short grass. Occasionally, they
mate and produce offspring that seldom live more than three weeks.
d) Two populations of crickets live in the same habitat. One cricket population sings a
rapid song while perched on top of a cactus, and the other population sings a slow
song from the ground beside the cactus.
e) Two turtles mate at different water temperatures, but the female of one type of
turtle has a bump on her shell and the female of another type of turtle has a flat
shell. The male of both types of turtle have flat lower shells.
f) Freshwater trout lay their eggs on the bottom of a lake to be fertilized by the
males’ sperm. Freshwater sturgeon do the same thing on the bottom of the same
lake. However, sturgeon sperm will not fertilize trout eggs, and trout sperm will
not fertilize sturgeon eggs.

4. Match the appropriate choice from the list on the right to the description on the left.

You can use each answer for the type of evolution more than once.(2 marks)

a) On islands in the Indian Ocean, people trying to catch fish have accidentally being
killing snails by drowning them with the new plastic fishing nets. As a result, snails
on the island tend to be getting smaller. / A] macroevolution
B] microevolution
C] no evidence
b) On islands in the south Pacific Ocean, various species of snails are larger than on
the nearest mainland. Research shows that these coral islands have been separated
from the mainland for more than 1 million years

5. Match the appropriate choice from the list on the right to the description on the left.

You can use each answer for the change in allele frequency more than once. (2 marks)

a) An allele results in a 50% reduction in the number of offspring born, but doubles
the number of offspring that survive to reproduce themselves. / A] less of allele
B] more of allele
C] no change
b) An allele results in a 25% increase in the birth rate of a species, by reducing the
energy expended for each of the young produced. As a result, 50% fewer young
reach reproductive age.

Part C: Short Answer (6 marks) Please answer the following questions on the answer sheet.

  1. Given the cladogram shown below, complete the chart on the answer sheet.

a) Write a “+” to indicate that the organism has the feature and write nothing [leave a blank]to

indicate that the organism does not have the feature. (4 marks)

b) What organism is T most closely related to? (1 mark)

c) What characteristic does P have in common with Q, but not with R? (1 mark)

Part D: Written Answer (25 marks) Please answer the following questions on foolscap.

1. Humans differ from monkeys by their absence of a visible tail. Humans differ from gorillas by the lack of function of their appendix. In point form suggest why humans lost their tail but did not lose their appendix. (3 marks)

2. a) Human females undergo a number of changes as a result of puberty. Select three features of

mature human females and explain why this feature has helped them succeed from an

evolutionary viewpoint. (3 marks)

b) Explain the evolutionary reason for most of the changes seen with human males as a result of

puberty. (1 mark)

3.

PARENTAL ISOTOPE / DAUGHTER ISOTOPE / HALF LIFE in years
14C / 14N / 5730
40K / 40Ar / 1.3 billion
235U / 207Pb / 713 million

a)LIST and EXPLAIN the relative ages of the seven fossils. (i.e. Rank the fossils from oldest to least old and explain the ranking.) (4 marks)

b)What is the MAXIMUM age and the MINIMUM age of fossil D? Show all calculations for full marks. (4 marks)

For # 4 and 5 select from the following features that changed in hominids over time.

[You may choose different features for #4 than for #5]

i)structure of foot bones

ii)shape of pelvis and length of femur shaft

iii)presence of sagittal crest

iv)size of lower jaw bone and molar teeth

v)size of canine teeth

vi)shape and size of brain

vii) use and design of tools

4. Dealing just with Austalopithicus and Parathropus choose two [2] features that changed.

a)How did each of these 2 features change from Austalopithicus to Parathropus? (2 marks)

b)Why was the change to a Parathropus feature advantageous for those species? (2 x 1 marks = 2 marks)

5. Dealing just with Austalopithicus and Homo sapiens choose three [3] features that changed.

c)How did each of these 3 features change from Austalopithicus to Homo sapiens? (3marks)

d)Explain why each of the changes seen over time was advantageous for Homo sapiens? (3 x 1 marks = 3 marks)

Evolution Unit Test (74 marks)Name: ______

Part A: Multiple Choice (24 marks)

1 / a b c d e / 7 / a b c d e / 13 / a b c d e / 19 / a b c d e
2 / a b c d e / 8 / a b c d e / 14 / a b c d e / 20 / a b c d e
3 / a b c d e / 9 / a b c d e / 15 / a b c d e / 21 / a b c d e
4 / a b c d e / 10 / a b c d e / 16 / a b c d e / 22 / a b c d e
5 / a b c d e / 11 / a b c d e / 17 / a b c d e / 23 / a b c d e
6 / a b c d e / 12 / a b c d e / 18 / a b c d e / 24 / a b c d e

Part B: Matching (19 marks)

1.a) _____2.a) _____3.a) _____4.a) _____

b) _____b) _____b) _____ b) _____

c) _____c) _____c) _____

d) _____d) _____d) _____5.a) _____

e) _____e) _____b) _____

f) _____

Part C: Short Answer (6 marks)

1. a)

TRAIT / P / Q / R / S / T / U / V / W / X / Y / Z
2 or 4 toed
claws
egg laying
four nipples
hooves
horned
mammary glands
placenta
pouched
retractable claws
whiskers

b) ______c) ______