1. Note the correct answer regarding Bacillus anthracis:

  • Spores are quickly destroyed in soil
  • B anthracis is gram-positive rods
  • The anthrax toxin consists of three distinct antigenic components
  • The organism generally exists in the endospore form in nature
  • B anthracis is found in soil only in equatorial Africa

2. Note the correct answer regarding antrax modes of transmission:

  • Anthrax primarily is a disease of herbivores
  • Illness in humans most commonly occurs following contact with infected humans
  • Bacillus anthracis can be used as a Bioterrorist Weapon
  • Consumption of contaminated undercooked meat can lead to cutaneous anthrax
  • Cases following laboratory exposure have been recognized

3. Note the wrong answer regarding the clinical features in cutaneous antrax:

  • Ulcer is surrounded by a satellite vesicles and edematous halo
  • Ulcer is painful with a black eschar
  • Regional lymphadenopathy may be painful
  • The membrane/exudate of the ulcer contains numerous anthrax bacilli
  • There is relatively large extent of associated edema

4. Note what is not characteristic for oropharyngeal anthrax:

  • Patients may complain of unilateral sore throat/difficulty swallowing
  • The ulcer may be accompanied by a membrane
  • The ulcer may be is associated with local edema and cervical adenopathy.
  • On chest radiograph can be revealed mediastinal widening
  • Death may result from asphyxiation due to neck edema or toxemia

5. Note what is characteristic for intestinal anthrax:

  • Patients complain of vomiting, severe abdominal pain, hematemesis, bloody diarrhea, fever.
  • Primary intestinal anthrax has a local lesion resembling the ulcer of oropharyngeal anthrax
  • Multiple anthrax ulcerative lesions are found throughout the GI tract secondary to hematogenous spread.
  • Intestinal anthrax is not difficult to recognize
  • Case-fatality rate where patients received antibiotic therapy remain very high

6. Note what is characteristic for inhalational anthrax:

  • There is no fatality where patients received antibiotic
  • Incubation period is 1-60 days in weapon-grade anthrax
  • Illness may be biphasic with an initial prodrome followed by severe respiratory distress
  • Inhalational anthrax presents as hemorrhagic mediastinitis
  • Multiple anthrax ulcerative lesions are found in oropharyngs

7. Note what is not characteristic for anthrax:

  • Patients with inhalational anthrax have a good prognosis
  • Patients with septicemic anthrax may develop overwhelming toxicity or shock
  • Postexposure prophylaxis for bioterrorist anthrax should be continued for 60 days
  • Hemorrhagic meningoencephalitis is a characteristic presentation of CNS lesion in antrax
  • Intravenousadministration of antibiotics is recommended in cases of gastrointestinal antrax

8. Note what is characteristic for anthrax:

  • The availability of anthrax vaccine is limited to military personnel
  • If treated early, patients with cutaneous anthrax have a good prognosis
  • Gram stain of CSF reveals many gram-negative diplococcal
  • In inhalational antrax abnormal chest radiograph can reveal mediastinal widening, infiltrates, consolidation and pleural effusion.
  • Person-to-person transmission is recognized in inhalational disease

9. What clinical scenario is not characteristic for antrax:

  • Cutaneous anthrax
  • Oropharyngeal anthrax
  • Inhalational anthrax
  • Kidney antrax
  • Intestinal anthrax
  1. What is not correct regarding Clostridium botulinum :
  2. Cl. botulinum are spore-forming, anaerobic bacillus
  3. Cl. botulinum may exist in soil or marine sediments throughout the world
  4. Clostridial spores are highly heat resistant
  5. The toxin is heat labile
  6. Botulism is a disease caused by spores of Cl. botulinum

2. Note the correct answer regarding botulism pathogenesis:

  • The toxin causes blockade of neuromuscular conduction
  • The toxin causes demielinisation
  • Blockade of neurotransmitter release at the nerve terminal is considered permanent
  • Botulism is a disease caused by the neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum
  • The toxin causes direct cytolysis of endothelial cells

3. Name the 3 clinical scenarios of botulism disease:

  • Food poisoning botulism
  • Wound infection botulism
  • Kidney botulism
  • Respiratory botulism
  • Infant botulism

4. Note the correct answer regarding botulism disease

  • The onset of symptoms can be abrupt or can evolve over several days
  • Typically, patients are febrile
  • Patients generally remain alert and responsive
  • Abdominal pain, with nausea and vomiting may precede or follow paralysis
  • The patients generally have hypersalivation

5. What is not characteristic for ophtalmoplegia syndrome in botulism:

  • Mydriasis - pupil dysfunction with poorly reactive pupils
  • Diplopia (double vision)
  • Lacrimation
  • Anisocoria - lesion of the nn.ciliares breves
  • Blepharoptosis - lesion of the III nerve

6. What is not characteristic for pharyngal neuropathic and glottal neuropathic syndroms in botulism:

  • Dysphagia - impairment of swallowing and drinking
  • Impairment of the palatinate reflex
  • Blepharoptosis - lesion of the III nerve
  • Dysphonia
  • Hoarse voice

7. What syndromes can be revealed in botulism:

  • Ophtalmoplegia syndrome
  • Pharyngal neuropathic syndrome
  • Muscular (miastenia) syndrome
  • Meningitis syndrome
  • Toxic shock syndrome

8. What syndromes can be revealed in botulism:

  • Hypovolemia shock
  • Gastrointestinal syndrome
  • Respiratory difficulties
  • Ophtalmoplegia syndrome
  • Encephalitic syndrome

9. What syndrome is not characteristic for non severe form of botulism:

  • Gastrointestinal syndrome
  • Respiratory difficulties
  • Pharyngal neuropathic syndrome
  • Ophtalmoplegia syndrome
  • Muscular (miastenia) syndrome

10. What is not characteristic for muscular (miastenia) syndrome in botulism:

  • Muscle weakness
  • A generally symmetric descending flaccid paralysis
  • Paralytic ileus advancing to severe constipation and urinary retention.
  • Convulsions
  • Gastric dilation

11. What is not characteristic for wound botulism:

  • The number of patients with WB and a history of chronic intravenous drug abuse has increased
  • Patients may be febrile, but this is more likely due to the wound infection rather than the WB syndrome
  • Often, the wound appears quite benign
  • Wound botulism is the rarest form of botulism
  • Gastrointestinal symptoms are always present in wound botulism

12. Note the correct answer regarding botulism disease:

  • The diagnosis of botulism requires a high degree of clinical suspicion
  • Wound infection requires incision and thorough debridement of the infected wound
  • Urinary catheterization may be required for urinary retention
  • Stomach and intestinal irrigation is not required
  • The demonstration of toxin in serum involves a bioassay in mice

13. Note the correct answer regarding botulism treatment:

  • Mechanical ventilation is considered when vital capacity is less than 30% of predicted.
  • Antitoxin will neutralize toxin already bound to neuromuscular junctions
  • Stress ulcer prophylaxis also is a standard component of intensive care management
  • An antitoxin may be beneficial, even when provided several wk after toxin ingestion
  • The antitoxin should be given after receiving laboratory confirmation of diagnosis.

14. Note the correct answer regarding botulism treatment:

  • HBIG - human botulinum immune globulin, ("Baby-BIG") is benefical for infant botulism
  • Botulism (infant and wound) should be treated with antibiotics to stop toxigenesis
  • Antitoxin has effect on established neurologic deficits.
  • Botulism antitoxin is an equine antitoxin
  • Equine antitoxin frequently is used in infant botulism

1. What Brucella species do not cause Brucellosis in humans?:

  • Brucella melitensis
  • Brucella abortusbovis
  • Brucella ovis
  • Brucella suis
  • Brucella canis

2. Note the correct answer regarding Brucella species:

  • coccobacill
  • diplococcal
  • gram-negative
  • intracellular aerobes
  • intracellular anaerobs

3. Note the correct answer regarding Brucellosis transmission:

  • transmission occurs through direct contact with animals, their carcasses or excreta, or by-products of abortion
  • infection may penetrate through damaged skin
  • can be directly transmitted from human to human
  • transmission occurs through ingestion of contaminated food products
  • transmission occurs through sexual contact

4. Note the correct answer regarding Brucellosis:

  • Brucellosis is a frequent entity in many industrialized nations
  • Symptoms of brucellosis are protean in nature, and none are specific enough to make the diagnosis
  • Brucella do not survive well in aerosols and do not resist drying
  • Brucellosis do not cause chronic forms
  • Standard culturing techniques require short incubation periods

5. Note the correct answer regarding clinical manifestation of Brucellosis:

  • Lung infection is very common
  • Congestive cardiac failure is characteristic for the young people
  • Fever (intermittent, undulant) can be associated with: chills, sweats and relative bradycardia
  • Neuropsychiatric symptoms consist of headache, depression, fatigue, emotional instability, irritability
  • Pain in the spine is an early and constant symptom, either in the neck or over the lumbar area

6. Note the correct answer regarding clinical manifestation of Brucellosis:

  • Orchitis and epididymitis are not characteristic
  • Urinary infections have no distinguishing features (pyelo- and glomerulonephritis may develop).
  • Cirrhosis is a frequent manifestation
  • Abdominal tenderness is associated with enlargement of the liver and/or the spleen.
  • Osteoarticular findings are characterized by tenderness, swelling over affected joints, bursitis, decreased range of motion

7. Note the correct answer regarding Brucellosis:

  • Osteoarticular, genitourinary, and hepatosplenic involvement are most common complications
  • Radiographic findings in patients with osteoarticular disease occur early in the course of illness
  • Radionuclide scintigraphy is not sensitive for detecting skeletal abnormalities
  • Monotherapeutic antimicrobial regimen is the mainstay of therapy
  • This disease is easily curable with antiviral treatment

8. Note the correct answer regarding treatment of Brucellosis

  • Multidrug antimicrobial regimens are the mainstay of therapy
  • Monotherapeutic approaches has a high relapse rates
  • Drugs displaying clinical activity against Brucella spp. are doxycycline, gentamicin, rifampin
  • Drugs displaying clinical activity against Brucella spp. are penicylline, erytromycine
  • Despite appropriately treated within the first months of onset, the infection has a very high risk of relapse or chronic disease.

1. Note the wrong answer regarding viral hepatitis

  • VHA is an DNA virus
  • VHB is an DNA virus
  • VHE is an RNA virus
  • VHD is an RNA virus
  • VHC is an RNA virus

2. Note the wrong answer regarding viral hepatitis

  • Major transmission of virus in VHA is by fecal-oral way
  • Major transmission of virus in VHB is by sexual or by parenteral way
  • Major transmission of virus in VHC is by parenteral way
  • Major transmission of virus in VHE is by parenteral way
  • Major transmission of virus in VHD is by sexual or by parenteral way

3. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • The chronicity rate in VHA is <10%
  • The chronicity rate in VHD superinfection is 100%
  • The chronicity rate in VHD coinfection is <10%
  • The chronicity rate in VHB is 50-70%
  • The chronicity rate in VHC is 50-70%

4. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • For VHA is usual to be fulminant
  • Serologic testing IgM anti-HAV is required to confirm a diagnosis of acute HAV infection
  • HAV RNA can be detected in the blood and stool of the majority of persons during the acute phase
  • Symptomatic HEV infection is most common in young adults aged 15-40 years
  • In general, viral hepatitis E lead to chronic form in 5-7% of cases

5. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • Hepatitis E is more severe among pregnant women, especially in third trimester
  • The cause of death in pregnant women in VHE are acute hepatic failure, haemorrhage, acute renal failure
  • Hepatitis E virus causes acute sporadic and epidemic viral hepatitis
  • Hepatitis C should be suspected in outbreaks of waterborne hepatitis
  • Acute hepatitis B is characterized by the simultaneous presence of HBsAg and anti-HBc IgG

6. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • Fulminate viral hepatitis A occurs frequently in pregnancy
  • Most outbreaks of VHD in developing countries have been associated with contaminated drinking water
  • After resolution, both total anti-HBc antibodies and anti-HBs antibodies are present
  • There is no chronic (long-term) infection in VHC
  • In chronic HBV carriers, total anti-HBc antibodies are present, whereas anti-HBs antibodies are absent

7. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • HCV does not integrate into host DNA like hepatitis B virus
  • Hepatitis A virus causes acute sporadic and epidemic viral hepatitis
  • In general, VHD-coinfection is a self-limiting viral infection followed by recovery
  • Occasionally (very rarely) a fulminant form of VHA develops
  • Hepatitis C should be suspected in outbreaks of waterborne hepatitis

8. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • The nucleotide sequence of HCV is highly variable, that accounts for resistance to antibodies
  • VHB contains a single-stranded genome of RNA
  • The pathogenesis of liver damage in VHC is due to a combination of direct cytopathic and of immune mediated mechanisms
  • In VHC infections are often inapparent or subclinical
  • Chronic infection does not occur in VHD

9. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • HBV is an extremely resistant strain capable of withstanding extreme temperatures and humidity
  • Appears that VHB-virus is not direct cytotoxic
  • HBV-DNA in hepatocyte may exist as an integrated (double-stranded, intranuclear) form or as an episomal (free) form.
  • The HBV carrier rate variation is 50-70% worldwide
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma is frequent in VHE hepatitis

10. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • Serum transaminases are elevated even before jaundice appear
  • HBsAg may be detected in incubation period
  • For VHE is characteristic the extrahepatic manifestations like arthritis or membranous glomerulonephritis
  • IgM anti-HBc appears late in the disease
  • HBsAg is borne by surface viral proteins

11. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • The prejaundice manifestation in VHA includes dyspeptic syndrome, arthralgic syndrome
  • HBeAg (E antigen) indicates HBV replication
  • HBsAb (antibody to surface antigen) indicates long term immunity
  • Pegylated interferon is used for the treatment of VHA and VHE hepatitis
  • The vaccines presently used for VHB immunization are composed of HBsAg

12. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • HBeAg (E antigen) correlates with high infectivity
  • Pegylated interferon is used for the treatment of VHC, VHB and VHD hepatitis
  • All newborns must be vaccinated for VHE
  • VHD consists of an RNA genome
  • The transmission of the Delta agent mirrors that of HEV

13. Note the wrong answer regarding viral hepatitis

  • All newborns must be vaccinated for VHB
  • The transmission of the Delta agent mirrors that of HBV
  • HDV has a direct cytopathic effect
  • HBsAb (antibody to surface antigen) may indicate chronic carrier status
  • The clinical expression of acute hepatitis D may range from mild to severe, fulminant hepatitis

14. Note the correct answers regarding viral hepatitis

  • HBeAg (E antigen) can be present in acute or chronic infection
  • HBsAg (surface antigen) may indicate chronic carrier status
  • IgM anti-HAV can persists for 6 months
  • VHE has a significant risk factors for carcinogenesis
  • HBV has a direct cytopathic effect

15. Note the wrong answer regarding viral hepatitis

  • Patients with cirrhosis must be checked every 3-6 months with alpha-fetoprotein measurements
  • HDV can be acquired either as a co-infection or as a superinfection
  • Hepatitis D does not increase the incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma over hepatitis B infection
  • Fulminant hepatic failure results from fibrotic change
  • Delta infection of a previously healthy carrier of VHB may induce an acute hepatitic picture

16. Note the wrong answer regarding viral hepatitis

  • Primary Delta infection in a HBsAg carrier is often severe
  • Hepatitis D does not increase the incidence of extrahepatic disease over hepatitis B infection
  • In fulminant hepatic failure the patient has an acute onset of severe mental changes
  • 100% of superinfected with HDV carriers of HBV develop chronic infection
  • Hepatitis C should be suspected in outbreaks of waterborne hepatitis occurring in developing countries

17. Note the wrong answer regarding viral hepatitis

  • VHA in children is mostly asymptomatic or causes a very mild illness
  • Typical signs and symptoms of hepatitis include jaundice, anorexia, an enlarged, tender liver
  • VHA is more severe in pregnant women and cause death in 20% of cases
  • IgG anti-HAV can remains detectable for the person's lifetime
  • IgM anti-HEV appers early in the course of infection

18. Note the wrong answer regarding viral hepatitis

  • Symptomatic HAV infection is most common in young adults aged 15-40 years in endemic areas
  • HAV RNA can be detected in the blood and stool of the majority of persons during the acute phase of infection
  • Serologic testing to IgM anti-HBc is required to confirm a diagnosis of acute HBV infection
  • The usual clinical presentation of VHA is fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea, abdominal discomfort and jaundice
  • In VHA jaundice occurs in only a small proportion of young children, but a majority of adults

1. Name the correct answer regarding types of fever:

  • In continuous fever temperature remains above normal throughout the day and does not fluctuate more than 1°C in 24 hours
  • In remittent fever temperature remains above normal throughout the day and fluctuates more than 1°C in 24 hours
  • Intermittent fever is the fever with regular shift of normal and high temperature with deviations of 3- 4C
  • Recurrent fever is the fever with regular shift of high temperature, lasting for 2-4 hours, and normal temperature lasting also for 2-4 hours
  • Undulant fever is a long lasting fever with irregular temperature deviations

2. Name the correct answer regarding infectious definitions:

  • Communicable disease is an infectious disease that does not spreads from person to person.
  • Infectious disease is damage or alteration of host cells resulting from an infection
  • Infection is the ability of a microorganism to invade a suitable host, evade host defenses, to multiply and colonize host tissues.
  • Latent infection is an infection that is inactive though continuing to infect, and which remains capable of producing symptoms.
  • Systemic infection is an infection that is limited to a small area of the body

3. Name the wrong answer regarding infectious definitions:

  • Symptomatic infection is an infection by a microorganism which results in some sort of expression of lack of health (i.e., disease).
  • Asymptomatic infection is colonization of the body by a microorganism that does not cause symptoms.
  • Opportunistic infection is an infection by a microorganism that normally does not cause disease but becomes pathogenic when the body's immune system is impaired.
  • Contagious disease an infectious disease that very slow and seldom spreads from person to person
  • Nosocomial infections are infections which are a result of treatment in a hospital or a healthcare service unit, but secondary to the patient's original condition

4. Name the correct answer regarding desensitize fractional method