1. Normal skin temperature should feel: A) hot.
B) cold.
C) warm. D) cool.
2. The normal stimulus to breathe is the level of: A) oxygen in the blood. B) oxygen in the brain.
C) carbon dioxide in the blood. D) carbon dioxide in the brain.
3. Which of the following vertebrae are found in the neck? A) sacral
B) coccyx C) lumbar D) cervical
4. To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, measure the distance between the: A) chin and nostril.
B) chin and earlobe. C) nose and earlobe.
D) comer of the mouth and earlobe.
5. Mouth-to-mask ventilation devices should always be used with: A) oxygen.
B) oropharyngeal airways.
C) nasopharyngeal airways.
D) a one-way valve attachment.
6. Pulse oximetry measures:
A) the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin. B) ventilatory rates.
C) carbon dioxide levels in the blood. D) oxygen levels in the body tissues.
7. A patient is sitting in a car after an automobile crash. He was not wearing his seat belt. He is complaining of pain in his arm and neck. The most appropriate device for this patient is a:
A) long backboard. B) short backboard. C) scoop stretcher.
D) wheeled stretcher.
8. Which of the following is NOT a sign of respiratory distress? A) nasal flaring
B) labored breathing
C) low blood pressure
D) accessory muscle use
9. Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A) increased oxygen in the blood. B) arterial vasodilation
C) venous vasoconstriction
D) decreased oxygen in the blood.
10. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A) vomitus
B) the tongue C) blood clots
D) aspirated food
11. What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A) radio
B) online
C) off-line
D) face-to-face
12. The goal of critical incident stress debriefing is to:
A) identify those responsible for problems during a critical incident. B) collect data for continuous quality improvement projects.
C) accelerate the normal recovery process following an incident.
D) recognize those who performed above their normal responsibilities.
13. What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? A) Check for other patients.
B) Check the vehicle's stability. C) Question the bystanders.
D) Establish communications with medical control.
14. What is the most common problem you may encounter when using a bag-valve-mask device?
A) environmental conditions
B) maintaining an airtight seal
C) positioning the patient's head
D) volume of the bag-valve-mask device
15. In a stable patient, vital signs should be reassessed: A) whenever the patient requests an update.
B) whenever you care for the patient for over 1 hour. C) at least every 15 minutes. D) at least every 30 minutes.
16. Which of the following methods is used to open the airway in a patient with a possible spinal cord injury? A) jaw-thrust
B) jaw-thrust in neck-lift C) jaw-thrust/head-tilt D) head tilt-chin lift
17. Gastric distention may be prevented by:
A) ventilating quickly, one second per breath.
B) slow and complete emptying of the BVM device and reservoir.
C) using the Sellick maneuver.
D) stacking ventilations one after the other.
18. Rules regarding reports and records state an incomplete or untidy report indicates: A) incomplete or inexpert emergency care was given. B) falsification of the report.
C) the scene was busy or complicated.
D) thorough documentation was not required.
19. When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs: A) flex at the waist.
B) keep the head elevated. C) keep the foot elevated.
D) always move in a backward direction.
20. You are unable to find your patient's radial pulse. What does this mean? A) The patient's blood pressure may be low.
B) The patient has low blood volume to the arms.
C) Nothing, because not everyone has a radial pulse.
D) You are not feeling the correct area because everyone has a radial pulse.
21. A pulse can be described as:
A) the electrical conduction through the heart producing ventricular contraction.
B) a pressure wave through the arteries created by ventricular contraction. C) the positive deflections found on an ECG known as the "R" wave. D) pulsations of blood in deep blood vessels.
22. Which of the following body parts can you use to assess skin color in an adult?
A) cheeks and tongue
B) earlobes and eyelids
C) nail beds and oral mucosa
D) conjunctiva and nasal bridge ~
23. Oxygen is a medical gas. What color tank is it stored in? A) blue B) gray
C) green
D) yellow
24. When obtaining vital signs, the EMT -B should evaluate the respiratory rate and A) rhythm.
B) strength. C) odor. D) class.
25. Proper lifting requires:
A) arms to be extended out from the body. B) feet about 15 inches apart. C) bending at the waist.
D) tightening your back and relaxing your abdomen.
26. When communicating with family members, you should avoid: A) giving false hope.
B) the words "death" or "dead." C) emotional communication. D) nonverbal communication.
27. You are examining a patient who is complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. You take his radial pulse, noting that it is irregular. This is most likely being caused by: A) premature or late contractions of the heart. B) the pulse not being taken correctly.
C) an occasional blockage of the radial artery.
D) the patient's arm not being straight enough while the pulse is taken.
28. Diastolic blood pressure is defined as the measurement of the pressure exerted against the walls of the:
A) veins while the heart is at rest.
B) veins during contraction of the heart.
C) arteries while the left ventricle is at rest. D) arteries during contraction of the heart.
29. While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 124/82 mm Hg. The higher number represents the pressure from the: A) atria relaxing.
B) atria contracting.
C) ventricles relaxing.
D) ventricles contracting.
30. A 42-year-old woman is complaining of abdominal pain. She states that it feels like a gallbladder attack she had last year. You should transport this patient: A) in a position of comfort.
B) on her side in case she vomits.
C) on her right side to reduce her pain.
D) with her legs elevated to prevent shock.
31. Nasal airways should be used with caution in head injury patients because they can: A) fracture the septum.
B) penetrate the cranium. C) damage the turbinates.
D) cause uncontrolled bleeding.
32. Usually a patient is moved immediately only when there is an immediate danger to the patient or to others if the patient is not moved. Which of the following does NOT present an immediate danger to the patient? A) fire or danger of fire
B) explosives or other hazardous materials
C) multiple patients and limited ambulance capacity
D) inability to protect the patient from other hazards at the scene
33. Which of the following is a sign of adequate ventilation? A) Skin color does not improve with oxygen.
B) The chest does not rise and fall with each ventilation. C) You hear and feel air escape as the patient exhales. D) The patient's stomach is rising and falling.
34. You should NOT use an oral airway in: A) infants and children.
B) cardiac arrest patients.
C) patients with a gag reflex.
D) patients with a suspected neck injury.
35. In obtaining a patient's history, the abbreviation SAMPLE is often used to get the most complete history. SAMPLE is an acronym for:
A) signs, allergies, medications, physical exam, last time of occurrence, evidence of associated problems.
B) signs, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, events leading to the injury or illness.
C) skill, associated couplets, medical physician, physical exam, last oral intake, evaluation.
D) skin color, associated complaints, medical physician, pertinent past history, location of the i~jury, events leading to the injury or illness.
36. The "P" in the SAMPLE history guideline stands for: A) Positive findings. B) Patient condition.
C) Pertinent past history. D) Problem list.
37. To select the proper size of nasal airway, you should measure: A) only the diameter of the nostril.
B) from the tip of the nose to the chin.
C) from the tip of the nose to the earlobe.
D) from the tip of the nose to the comer of the mouth.
38. One important advantage of placing an injured patient on a long backboard is that it is easy to:
A) clean.
B) maneuver around comers.
C) move down a flight of stairs.
D) transfer the patient to an ambulance stretcher.
39. What system includes health care professionals who provide prehospital emergency medical care and transport of the sick and injured? A) enhanced 9-1-1 systems
B) emergency medical services
C) hospital emergency departments
D) ambulance-to-hospital communications
40. Which of the following steps should NOT be taken while oral suctioning a patient? A) Suction for less than 15 seconds.
B) Suction while entering a patient's mouth. C) Suction while exiting a patient's mouth.
D) Turn the patient's head to the side if the possibility of injury does not exist.
41. A late sign of shock and an indication that critical decompensation has begun is: A) a decrease in blood pressure.
B) an increase in blood pressure. C) an increase in respiratory rate.
D) a capillary refill time of 3 seconds.
42. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give: A) a false low systolic and diastolic reading. B) a high systolic but low diastolic reading.
C) a false high systolic and diastolic reading. D) a low systolic but high diastolic reading.
43. Capillary refill should NOT be used as a sign of shock in a child who is: A) hot.
B) cold.
C) injured.
D) diabetic.
44. When assessing a patient's pupils, you must remember that: A) pupils constrict in a dark environment.
B) both pupils normally respond to a light shone in one eye. C) dilated pupils are a reliable sign of drug addiction.
D) equal pupil size rules out the possibility of head injury.
45. Aside from wearing protective equipment, which of the following methods is simple and effective in protecting yourself from communicable diseases? A) washing your hands
B) avoiding patient contact
C) touching a patient's clothes only
D) standing at least 3 feet from a patient while talking
46. At which of the following times are you legally obligated to care for any patient requiring attention? A) never
B) at all times
C) while on duty only D) while off duty only
47. Pale skin color may indicate: A) shock.
B) cyanosis.
C) heatstroke.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
48. How should an unresponsive patient without traumatic injuries be positioned to maintain spontaneous breathing? A) supine
B) face down
C) in the recovery position D) in a position of comfort
49. When you suction an airway, the minimum body substance isolation (BSI) precautions you should take are:
A) hand washing and a mask. B) gloves and eye protection.
C) eye protection, gloves, and a HEPA respirator. D) hand washing, gloves, and a mask.
50. Which of the following is an accurate guide to assessing a pulse?
A) Press firmly occluding the blood flow, and then release slowly. B) Use the pads of your fingers rather than the tips.
C) Avoid pressing the artery against a bone or solid organ. D) Use your thumb to increase the surface area felt.
51. Treatment of an adult with a partial airway obstruction with good air exchange is: A) back blows and chest thrusts. B) a series of abdominal thrusts.
C) manual removal with your finger.
D) close monitoring and supportive care.
52. The recovery position for an unconscious patient without a spinal injury reduces the chance for: A) shock.
B) snoring.
C) drooling.
D) vomiting and aspiration.
53. Critical incident stress debriefing is a program used to: A) reduce anxiety from stressful job-related incidents.
B) evaluate standard operating procedures during critical incidents. C) debrief press and media on details of a significant incident. D) investigate complaints during a major incident.
54. A patient who has difficulty breathing is usually transported in what position? A) on the left side to prevent aspiration of vomitus
B) with the legs elevated 6 to 12 inches to prevent shock C) with the head elevated to a position of comfort D) with the head of the stretcher elevated 6"
55. The EMT-B standard of care can be described as:
A) how emergency room staff would provide care in the same situation.
B) the care a reasonably prudent person, with similar training, would provide in the same situation.
C) national training standards used to educate new EMT -Bs.
D) care based on what senior paramedics would do in similar situations.
56. Living cells begin to die when they are deprived of: A) water.
B) oxygen. C) sunlight.
D) carbon dioxide.
57. When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
A) pulse pressure.
B) systolic blood pressure.
C) diastolic blood pressure.
D) average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
58. An EMT who has extensive training in advanced life support assessments and treatments is called:
A) a first responder.
B) an EMT-B (Basic).
C) an EMT-I (Intennediate). D) an EMT-P (Paramedic).
59. Which of the following types of medical control involves communicating with the
physician and then providing patient care? I A) online
B) off-line
C) protocol
D) standing orders
60. You arrive at the scene of an electrocution and find an unconscious man who has shallow respirations. To maintain his airway, you should:
A) insert an oropharyngeal airway by placing it upside down in the mouth, and rotating it 180°.
B) lubricate the tip of an oropharyngeal airway before inserting it.
C) insert an oropharyngeal airway until the flange rests inside the teeth.
D) hyperextend the neck, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and deliver breaths with positive pressure.
61. Hypoxia is defined as:
A) decreased oxygen in body tissues. B) increased oxygen saturations. C) reduced ventilations.
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide mismatch.
62. Which of the following is NOT a sign of respiratory distress? A) stridor
B) cyanosis
C) swollen eyes
D) accessory muscle use
63. There has been a one-car crash. One patient is sitting behind the steering wheel. Which of the following conditions requires rapid extrication? A) cardiac arrest
B) unconsciousness
C) severe bleeding from the thigh
D) inability to move the arms and legs
64. Tachycardia is defined as a pulse rate of: A) fewer than 100 beats per minute. B) more than 150 beats per minute. C) fewer than 60 beats per minute. D) more than 100 beats per minute.
65. Proper body mechanics means lifting the patient: A) as quickly as possible. B) in the easiest way.
C) using techniques of weight lifters.
D) in the most efficient way to prevent injuries to yourself.
66. Thorough documentation on the ambulance record will provide a basis for: A) absolute immunity.
B) sovereign immunity. C) legal immunity. D) reliable recall.
67. The condition of normal skin should be: A) hot. B) dry. C) wet.
D) moist.
68. To determine the proper size of an oral airway to use on a child, you should measure from the:
A) comer of the mouth to the earlobe.
B) tip of the thumb to the palm of the hand.
C) tip of the nose to the comer of the mouth.
D) top of the first finger to the top of the little finger.
69. Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate of: A) more than 1 00 beats per minute. B) fewer than 60 beats per minute. C) more than 150 beats per minute. D) fewer than 100 beats per minute.
70. A person who has training in basic emergency care skills, including automatic external defibrillation, use of airway adjuncts, and assisting with certain medications is called: A) a first responder.
B) an EMT-B (Basic).
C) an EMT-I (Intermediate). D) an EMT-P (Paramedic).
71. What areas of the body will show cyanosis? A) lips and nail beds
B) nose, cheeks, base of the neck
C) hands, tongue, whites of the eyes D) fingers, abdomen, around the ears
72. Which of the following situations requires you to notify law enforcement? A) abuse case
B) burn patient
C) cardiac arrest
D) accidental drug overdose
73. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
A) ignore the patient's feelings and focus on their medical complaint. B) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
C) reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be. D) demand the patient to be quite and cooperative during transport.
74. Which of the following questions is used to determine the chief complaint? A) "What seems to be the matter?" B) "How far did you fall?"
C) "What did you eat last?"
D) "When did the chest pain begin?"
75. Patients showing signs of impending hypovolemic shock should lie with: A) their knees bent.
B) their legs elevated.
C) their heads elevated.
D) a long backboard under them.
76. The only time a patient should be moved before packaging is complete would be when: A) you receive another call.
B) police direct you to "hurry up."
C) the EMT-B's or patient's life is in immediate danger. D) your partner is busy with another patient.
77. Which of the following organs is NOT working correctly when a patient has jaundice of the skin or whites of the eyes? A) liver B) heart C) lungs
D) kidneys
78. Which of the following situations does NOT require reporting to the authorities? A) transporting a drug addict with a broken ankle B) delivering a baby in the field
C) treating a victim of sexual assault
D) treating a patient who might be a victim of child abuse
79. Which of the following is considered to be personal protective equipment? A) gloves and eye protection B) preventive antibiotics C) reusable latex gloves
D) HEPA respirator for the patient
80. Subjective information gathered during your patient assessment are called: A) signs
B) symptoms C) complaints D) problems
81. What is the single most important thing you should do routinely to help prevent transmission of infectious disease?
A) Undergo a yearly health examination. B) Maintain up-to-date immunizations.
C) Undergo pre-employment and follow-up tuberculosis (PPD) tests.
D) Wash your hands before and immediately after contacting each patient.
82. The radial pulse is found:
A) near the patient's leg, close to the hip. B) underneath the arm, near the shoulder.
C) on the underside of the wrist, on the same side as the thumb.
D) on the underside of the wrist, on the same side as the little finger.
83. Continuing Education in EMS serves to:
A) maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
B) enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training. C) prove research and statistical findings in field care.
D) provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.