Modul 2. Radial diagnostic

The text test questions

Modul 2. Radial diagnostic human diseases

The text test questions

  1. Which one of the following is the most preferred route to perform cerebral angiography?
  2. All of the above
  3. Transbrachial route
  4. Direct carotid puncture
  5. Transaxillary route
  6. * Transfemoral route
  7. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in:
  8. Other
  9. Ocular trauma
  10. Hyperlysinaemia
  11. * Homocystinuria
  12. Marfan's syndrome
  13. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is:
  14. Sella Turcica
  15. Brainstem
  16. Cerebellum
  17. * Basal ganglia
  18. Subarachnoid space
  19. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesion in:
  20. Ventricle
  21. Basal ganglia
  22. Thalamus
  23. Grey matter
  24. * White matter
  25. Expansive type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:
  26. Lung
  27. Prostate
  28. Breast
  29. Bronchus
  30. * Kidney
  31. Name most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
  32. Cyst
  33. Schwannoma
  34. * Cavernous haemangioma
  35. Meningioma
  36. Neurofibroma
  37. A 24-year-old male, known epileptic, presented following a seizure w itli pain in the right shoulder region. Examination revealed that the right upper limb was adducted and internally rotated and the movements could not be performed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  38. None of the above
  39. Subglenoid dislocation of shoulder
  40. Intrathoracic dislocation of shoulder
  41. Luxatio erecta
  42. * Posterior dislocation of shoulder
  43. Which of the following usually produces osteoblastic secondaries?
  44. * Carcinoma prostate
  45. Carcinoma urinary bladder
  46. Carcinoma skin
  47. Carcinoma breast
  48. Carcinoma lung
  49. Subdural hematoma most commonly results from:
  50. Intersexuality
  51. Haemophilia
  52. * Injury to cortical bridging veins
  53. Rupture of cerebral AVM
  54. Rupture of intracranial aneurysm
  55. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
  56. Ultrasonography
  57. Quantitative computed tomography
  58. Ultrasonography
  59. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
  60. * Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
  61. Radiological findings in meningioma are all except:
  62. Periostitis
  63. * None of the above
  64. Osteosclerosis
  65. Vascular markings
  66. Calcification
  67. A patient is suspected to have vestibular Shwanomma, the investigation of choice for its diagnosis is:
  68. Ultrasonography
  69. PET scan
  70. SPECT
  71. * Gadolinium enhanced MRI
  72. Contrast enhanced CT scan
  73. Which ofthe following is the best choice to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?
  74. OFECT
  75. Myelography
  76. Angiography
  77. * MRI
  78. CT scan
  79. Which of the following brain tumors does not spread via CSF?
  80. Simenoma
  81. * Craniopharyngioma
  82. CNS Lymphoma
  83. Medulloblastom
  84. Germ cell tumors
  85. The X-ray view for supraorbital fissure is:
  86. Other
  87. Basal
  88. AP(Anterio-Posterior)
  89. * Caldwell
  90. Towne's
  91. Geographic lytic lesions in the vault of the skull with bevelled edges are seen with:
  92. Down's syndrome
  93. Reticular cell carcinoma
  94. Hyperparathyroidism
  95. Multiple myeloma
  96. * Eosinophilic granuloma
  97. The most common calcifying brain tumour in a child is:
  98. None of the above
  99. Meningioma
  100. Glioma
  101. * Craniopharyngioma
  102. Medulloblastoma
  103. The best investigation for parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma:
  104. Thermography
  105. SPECT(Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography) scan
  106. CECT
  107. * MRI
  108. CSF(Cerebrospinal fluid) cytology
  109. CT scan shows a subarachnoid haemorrhage following symptoms of sudden headache and paralysis. Next investigation of choice is:
  110. MR spectroscopy
  111. MRI
  112. Transacromial DopplerUSG
  113. SPECT(Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography)
  114. * 4-vessel angiography
  115. In intervertebral disc prolapse, schmorl node on MRI implies:
  116. Without comment
  117. Not prognostic
  118. Good prognosis
  119. * Not significant
  120. Significant
  121. IVP should be cautiously performed in:
  122. Sacral agenesis
  123. Leukemia
  124. Neuroblastoma
  125. Bone secondaries
  126. * Multiple myeloma
  127. An ideal imaging method for diagnosing hydrocephalus in an infant is:
  128. Thermography
  129. MRl
  130. * Ultrasound
  131. CT scan
  132. Plain X-ray
  133. The earliest congenital malformation that can be detected on Ultrasonography:
  134. Cyst formation
  135. Down's syndrome
  136. Sacral agenesis
  137. Hydrocephalus
  138. * Anencephaly
  139. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is:
  140. Cobalt 60 (60Co)
  141. * Technetium-99m linked to Methylene diphosphonate (99mTc-MDP)
  142. Technetium-99m (99mTc)
  143. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc)
  144. Gallium 67 (67Ga)
  145. The best view for visualising the sella turcica in X-ray is:
  146. None of the above
  147. * Lateral view
  148. Open mouth view
  149. Oblique view
  150. AP views
  151. In cerebral angiography, due is injected through:
  152. Subclavicle artery
  153. Radial artery
  154. Axillary artery
  155. Brachial artery
  156. * Femoral artery
  157. Which of the following is not done in a case of Brain tumour?
  158. Echoencephalography
  159. * Lumbar puncture
  160. X-ray skull
  161. MRI
  162. CT scan
  163. Investigation of choice for Acute subarachnoid haemorrhage is:
  164. Ultrasonography
  165. Angiography
  166. * CT scan
  167. Enhanced MRI
  168. MRI
  169. All of the following are correct about radiological evaluation of a patient with Cushing's syndrome except:
  170. All of the above
  171. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish the tumour from an ectopic Adrenocorticotropic hormone producing tumour
  172. Adrenal CT scan distinguishes adrenal tumour from cortical hyperplasia
  173. MRI of the adrenal glands may distinguish adrenal adenoma from carcinoma
  174. * MRI of the sella tursica will identify the cause of Cushing’s syndrome
  175. Characteristic finding in CT scan of patient with tubercular meningitis is:
  176. Skull lesion
  177. Calcification in cerebellum
  178. Ventriculitis
  179. Hydrocephalus is not seen
  180. * Exudates seen in basal cistern
  181. 'Tram-track calcification' in the brain is seen in:
  182. Anaemia
  183. Syphilis
  184. Tuberous sclerosis
  185. Toxoplasmosis
  186. * Sturge-Weber syndrome
  187. Antenatal diagnosis of hydrocephalus is done by:
  188. Clinical manifestation
  189. Aminocentesis
  190. Foetoscopy
  191. AFP (alphafetoprotein) estimation
  192. * Ultrasonography
  193. Biconvex hyperdense shadow on non-contrast CT scan is seen in:
  194. Cerebellum tumour
  195. Intraventricular haemorrhage
  196. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
  197. Subdural haemorrhage
  198. * Extradural haemorrhage
  199. Ideal imaging modality to diagnose hydrocephalus in a one month old baby is:
  200. MR spectroscopy
  201. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
  202. Computerised tomography
  203. * Ultrasound
  204. Plain X-ray
  205. Name the manifestation premature filling of veins in of cerebral angiography:
  206. Other
  207. Arterial occlusion
  208. * Arteriovenous malformation
  209. Brain tumour
  210. Trauma
  211. The 'doughnut' sign seen on a brain scan usually suggests:
  212. * All of the above
  213. Cyst
  214. Glioblastoma
  215. Metastases
  216. Abscess
  217. Most radiodense substance is:
  218. Air
  219. * Bone
  220. Brain
  221. Soft tissue
  222. Fluid
  223. Echoencephalography is useful in detecting, exept:
  224. Pineal calcification
  225. Vascular lesions
  226. * Epilepsy
  227. Midline shift
  228. Ventricular dilatation
  229. Echoencephalography is most useful for detecting:
  230. Pineal calcification
  231. Vascular lesions
  232. Epilepsy
  233. Midline shift
  234. * Ventricular dilatation
  235. Dye used for myelography is:
  236. Iodolipol
  237. Lopanoic acid
  238. Dianosil
  239. * Myodil
  240. Conray -320
  241. Unilateral elevation of diaphragm is commonly due to:
  242. Gastritis
  243. Congenital causes
  244. * Scoliosis
  245. Large liver
  246. Obesity
  247. Beheaded Scottish terrier sign is seen in:
  248. Fracture scaphoid
  249. Fracture rib
  250. Fracture transverse process of lumber vertebra
  251. * Spondylolisthesis
  252. Spondylosis
  253. Most common cause of intracranial calcification is:
  254. None of all above
  255. Tuberculoma
  256. Meningioma
  257. Intracranial aneurysm
  258. * Pineal calcification
  259. Intraosseous skeletal tumour is best diagnosed by:
  260. Echoencephalography
  261. CT with scintiscan
  262. CT scan
  263. * NMR(Nuclear Magnetic Resonance)
  264. Plain X-ray
  265. Hair on end appearance in skull X-ray is characteristic of:
  266. Multiple mieloma
  267. Hemochromatosis
  268. Megaloblastic anemia
  269. * Thalasemia
  270. Sickle cell anemia
  271. Isotope used in bone scans:
  272. All of the above
  273. Chromium
  274. Selenium
  275. Gallium
  276. * Technetium
  277. Intracranial calcification in skull X-rays may be:
  278. * All of the above
  279. Hypophysis calcifications
  280. Cysticercosis
  281. Dural calcifications
  282. Pineal calcifications
  283. Signs of increased intracranial tension in a child X-ray:
  284. * All of the above
  285. Silver beaten appearance of the bones
  286. Tense posterior fontanelle
  287. Tense anterior fontanelle
  288. Separation of the sutures
  289. Investigation of choice for multiple sclerosis:
  290. Instrumental investigation
  291. EBG
  292. X-ray
  293. CT scan
  294. * MRI
  295. 'H' shaped vertebra is seen in:
  296. Traumatic lesion
  297. Osteoporosis
  298. Hemangioma
  299. * Sickle cell anemia
  300. Phenylketonuria
  301. Calcification in basal ganglia is seen in:
  302. Hypovolemia
  303. Hypoaldosteronism
  304. Hypopituitarism
  305. * Hypoparathyroidism
  306. Hypothyroidism
  307. First investigation of choice for spinal cord tumor:
  308. Pantomography
  309. Plain X-ray
  310. * MRI
  311. CT
  312. Myelography
  313. Extradural hematoma CT scan finding is:
  314. Calcification
  315. Low attenuated biconvex lesion
  316. Concavo convex hyperdense lesion
  317. * Hyperdense biconvex lesion
  318. Hypodense biconvex lesion
  319. Most serious complication of myelogram is:
  320. Dizziness
  321. * Arachnoiditis
  322. Headache
  323. Transient neurological deficit
  324. Allergy
  325. Investigation of choice for acute subarachnoid hemorrhage:
  326. Thermography
  327. Angiography
  328. * CT scan
  329. MRI
  330. Enhanced MRI
  331. Pantomography is done for inspection:
  332. Dental absence
  333. * Transverse, fracture of Atlas
  334. TM joint
  335. Dental cyst
  336. Dental caries
  337. Time sector scanning of neonates is preferred because of the following reason most practical reason:
  338. Child will be more cooperative
  339. Better resolution
  340. Children more cooperative
  341. Inexpensive
  342. * Open fontanelles
  343. Time sector imaging is preferred in infants because:
  344. No right answer
  345. * Close to fontanelles
  346. Less expensive
  347. Far from fontanelles
  348. Child will be more cooperative
  349. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
  350. Atherosclerosis
  351. Hypertension
  352. * Aneurysm
  353. Cavernous angioma
  354. Arterio-venous malformation
  355. Radiosensitivity of tumour depends on:
  356. Kind of atypia
  357. Number of cells
  358. * D and E are right
  359. Blood supply
  360. Histology
  361. Which of the following cranial nerve can be visualised on plain CT scan?
  362. Optic and trigeminal
  363. Hypoglossal
  364. Facial
  365. Trigeminal
  366. * Optic
  367. Which of the following is not true about non contrast CT scan in head injury?
  368. None of the above
  369. Subarachnoid haemorrhage appears as areas of increased density in basilar cisterns
  370. Acute subdural hematoma appears as crescent shadow of increased density
  371. Extradural haematomas are usually lens shaped
  372. * Subdural hematoma increase in density over lesional CT scans over weeks
  373. Calcification of the intervertebral disc is present in:
  374. Fracture
  375. Achondroplasia
  376. * Ankylosing spondylitis
  377. Homocystinuria
  378. Maple syrup urine disease
  379. All are features of raised intracranial tension in adults except:
  380. Enlarged of dorsum sella
  381. * Sutural diastasis
  382. Inner table convolutions
  383. Erosion of posterior clinoid process
  384. Erosion of dorsum sella
  385. Decreased teeth enamel is seen in all except:
  386. All of the above
  387. Osteomalacia
  388. * Fluorosis
  389. Cushing syndrome
  390. Hyperparathyroidism
  391. Vessels catheterized on carotid angiography are:
  392. 1 external carotids and 2 vertebral
  393. 2 external carotids and 1 vertebral
  394. * 2 internal carotids and 1 vertebral
  395. 2 internal carotids and 2 vertebral
  396. 2 external carotids and 2 vertebral
  397. Which of the following is not a radiological feature of meningioma?
  398. No right answer
  399. * Decalcification inner table
  400. Increased meningeal vascular markings
  401. Enlarged foramen spinosum
  402. Lamellar calcification
  403. Multiple'punched out holes' in skull are seen in:
  404. Congenital cytomegalovirus injection
  405. Acromegaly
  406. Thalassemia major
  407. * Multiple myeloma
  408. Hyperparathyroidism
  409. 'Tram line' calcification seen in skull X-ray are characteristic of:
  410. Multiple mieloma
  411. * Sturge Weber Syndrome
  412. Craniopharyngioma
  413. Congenital toxoplasmosis
  414. Congenital cytomegalovirus injection
  415. Secondary fracture healing is:
  416. * Stimulated by osteoprogenitor cells in the periosteum and characterized by callus formation.
  417. Also called endochondral repair.
  418. Stimulated by osteoprogenitor cells in the periosteum.
  419. Characterized by callus formation.
  420. Frequently associated with compression plating.
  421. Both membranous and endochondral ossification occur in which of the following?
  422. Femur
  423. Patella
  424. Occipital bone
  425. Clavicle
  426. * Patella andOccipital bone
  427. Avascular necrosis may occur with which of the following?
  428. Alcoholism
  429. Scaphoid fractures
  430. * All of the above
  431. Femoral neck fractures with partial displacement
  432. Displaced talar neck fractures
  433. Which of the following is associated with POEMS syndrome?
  434. * Plasmacytoma
  435. Multiple exostoses
  436. Eosinophilic granuloma
  437. Sarcoidosis
  438. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  439. Which of the following concerning fibrous dysplasia is (are) true?
  440. Of the craniofacial bones, the frontal and sphenoid bones are commonly involved
  441. Malignant transformation is rare
  442. Serum calcium and serum phosphorus levels are elevated
  443. * When associated with precocious female sexual development and cutaneous pigmentation, it is called McCune-Albright syndrome andof the craniofacial bones, the frontal and sphenoid bones are commonly involved
  444. When associated with precocious female sexual development and cutaneous pigmentation, it is called McCune-Albright syndrome.
  445. What contrasting matter used for pneumoarthrography?
  446. Oxygen, hydrogen
  447. Air, nitrogen
  448. Oxygen, nitrogen
  449. * Air, oxygen
  450. Air, hydrogen
  451. Which one of the following is associated with tuberous sclerosis?
  452. Enchondroma
  453. * Bone island
  454. Osteoma
  455. Giant cell tumor
  456. Fihrous dysplasia
  457. True statements concerning sarcoidosis include:
  458. No right answer
  459. Acro-osteosclerosis may occur
  460. * All are right
  461. A lattice-work configuration of the trabecular pattern is characteristic
  462. In the hands, involvement of the metacarpals and proximal phalanges is more common than involvement of the middle and distal phalanges
  463. True statements concerning gout include:
  464. Bilateral effusions of the olecranon hursae are pathognomonic
  465. There is joint space narrowing early in the disease
  466. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint space
  467. *Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint space andGout is more common in overproduces than underexcretors of uric acid
  468. Gout is more common in overproduces than underexcretors of uric acid
  469. Findings characteristic of calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease include:
  470. Association with hemochromatosis
  471. * Association with hemochromatosisand predilection for the patellofemoral joint space in the knee
  472. Calcification of the nucleus pulposus
  473. Calcification of the triangular fibrocartilage in the wrist
  474. Predilection for the patellofemoral joint space in the knee
  475. The most common location of osteochondritis dissecans is at which femoral condyle?
  476. Anterior aspect of the lateral
  477. * Lateral aspect of the medial
  478. Medial aspect of the medial
  479. Lateral aspect of the lateral
  480. Medial aspect of the lateral
  481. The most common meniscal tear involves the:
  482. Peripheral lateral meniscus
  483. Anterior horn of the lateral meniscus
  484. Posterior horn of the lateral meniscus
  485. Anterior horn of the medial meniscus
  486. * Posterior horn of the medial meniscus
  487. True statements concerning posterior shoulder dislocation include:
  488. The head of the humerus is locked in internal rotation.
  489. Epileptic convulsive seizures are a common cause.
  490. Associated fractures of the greater tuberosity occur 15% of the time.
  491. * The head of the humerus is locked in internal rotation and a positive rim sign may be present.
  492. A positive rim sign may be present.
  493. The trough line is a compression fracture of which aspect of the humerus?
  494. Lateral
  495. * Antero medial
  496. Anterolateral
  497. Posteromedial
  498. Posterolateral
  499. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is:
  500. Natrium chloride
  501. * Technetium-99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP)
  502. Technetium-99m (99mTc)
  503. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc)
  504. Gallium -67 (67Ga)
  505. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an acentric osteolytic lesion?
  506. Osteomirlitis
  507. * Simple bone cyst
  508. Fibrous cortical defect
  509. Giant cell tumor
  510. Aneurysmal bone cyst
  511. Expanisle type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:
  512. Lungs
  513. Prostate
  514. Breast
  515. Bronchus
  516. * Kidney
  517. Which of the following usually produces osteoblastic secondaries?
  518. Melanoma
  519. * Carcinoma prostate
  520. Carcinoma urinary bladder
  521. Carcinoma breast
  522. Carcinoma lung
  523. A 33-year-old man presented with a slowly progressive swelling in the middle third of his right
    tibia. X-ray examination revealed multiple sharply demarcated radiolucent lesions separated by areas
    of dense and sclerotic bone. Microscopic examination of a biopsy specimen revealed island of
    epithelial cells in a fibrous stroma. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
  524. Osteomielitis
  525. Fibrous cortical defect
  526. Osteosarcoma
  527. Osteofibrous dysplasia
  528. * Adamantinoma
  529. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
  530. MRI
  531. Quantitative computed tomography
  532. Ultrasonography
  533. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
  534. * Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
  535. "Sunray appearance" on X-rays is suggestive of:
  536. An osteolytic sarcoma
  537. An Ewing's sarcoma
  538. * An osteogenic sarcoma
  539. A metastatic tumour in the bone
  540. A chondrosarcoma
  541. Epiphyseal enlargement is seen in:
  542. Reiter's syndrome
  543. * Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
  544. Spondo-epiphyseal dysplasia
  545. Ankylosing spondylitis
  546. Rickets
  547. About osteogenesis imperfecta; all are true except:
  548. Dental abnormalities
  549. Scleral abnormalities
  550. Classified by sillence classification
  551. * Metaphyseal fractures
  552. Diaphyseal fractures
  553. In scurvy all of the following radiological signs are seen except'.
  554. None of the above
  555. Frenkel's line
  556. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis
  557. * Soap bubble appearance
  558. Pelican spur
  559. Calcification of meniscal cartilage is feature of:
  560. Rickets
  561. * Pseudogout
  562. Reiter's syndrome
  563. Hyperparathyroidism
  564. Acromegaly
  565. Increased radioisotopes are seen in all of the following except:
  566. Secondary bone tumour
  567. * Pseudo arthrosis
  568. Paget's disease
  569. Osteomyelitis
  570. Primary bone tumour
  571. The earliest evidence of Rickets is seen by:
  572. Radiological examination of skull
  573. S. phosphorus level
  574. S. calcium level
  575. S. alkaline phosphatase level
  576. * Radiological examination of growing end of bone
  577. An obese patient has heavy, thick bones. A good X-ray is taken with:
  578. None of the above
  579. Increased developing time
  580. Increased exposure time
  581. * Increase in KV
  582. Increase in mA
  583. Multiple punched out lesions on X-ray is seen in:
  584. Fibroma
  585. Eosinophilic granuloma
  586. * Multiple myeloma
  587. Craniopharyngioma
  588. Paget's disease
  589. Rib notching is seen in all the following except:
  590. * None
  591. Neurofibromatosis
  592. IVC obstruction
  593. Coarctation of the aorta
  594. Blalock-Taussing shunt
  595. Investigation of choice in traumatic paraplegia is:
  596. Thermography
  597. Beta rays
  598. Ultrasound
  599. CT scan
  600. * MRI
  601. Dead bone on an X-ray looks:
  602. Without change
  603. Is not seen at all
  604. Less radioopaque
  605. Radiolucent
  606. * More radioopaque
  607. Thickness of lead apron to prevent radiation:
  608. 10 mm
  609. 7 mm
  610. * 0.5 mm
  611. 3 mm
  612. 1 mm
  613. In bone infarcts, all are true except:
  614. Are seen in acute pancreatitis
  615. Are often diaphyseal in sickle cell disease
  616. * Occur in thalassaemia major
  617. Occur in Gaucher's disease
  618. Dysbaric osteonecrosis are commonly juxtaarticular
  619. "Champagne Class" pelvis is seen in:
  620. Mieloma
  621. Congenital dislocation of hip
  622. Down's syndrome
  623. Cretinism
  624. * Achondroplasia
  625. When bones show as 'Bone within bone' appearance this is indicative of:
  626. * Osteopetrosis
  627. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
  628. Mieloma
  629. Bone infarction
  630. Sickle cell anaemia
  631. Normal metacarpal index is:
  632. Other
  633. More than 10.4
  634. 8.4 to 10.4
  635. * 5.4 to 7.9
  636. Less than 5.4
  637. The radiological changes in Rickets are:
  638. Dislocation of the bone
  639. Bowing of the bone
  640. Epiphysis smaller than normal and have characteristic thin pencil line cortex
  641. Fracture of the bone
  642. * Narrowing or absence of the normal zone of provisional calcification
  643. "Marble bone" appearance is characteristic of:
  644. Periostites
  645. Achondroplasia
  646. Fluorosis
  647. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  648. * Osteopetrosis
  649. Stryker's view is used in shoulder joint to visualise:
  650. Bone destruction
  651. Bicipital groove
  652. Subacromial calcification
  653. * Recurrent subluxation
  654. Muscle calcification
  655. Intraosseous skeletal tumour is best diagnosed by:
  656. Ultrasound
  657. CT with scintiscan
  658. CT scan
  659. * NMR
  660. Plain X-ray
  661. Isotope used in bone scans:
  662. Zinc
  663. Chromium
  664. Selenium
  665. Gallium
  666. * Technetium
  667. Notching of ribs on X-ray is seen in:
  668. Nothing of the above
  669. * Coarctation of aorta
  670. Ebsteins anomaly
  671. ASD(Atrial Septal Defect)
  672. PDA
  673. For traumatic paraplegia investigation of choice is:
  674. Thermography
  675. Ultrasonography
  676. X-ray
  677. CT scan
  678. * MRI
  679. Tumours radiosensitivity depends on:
  680. Cells atypia
  681. Number of cells
  682. Nucleus atypia
  683. Blood supply
  684. * Histology
  685. Earliest radiological change to appear in case of acute osteomyelitis is:
  686. Bone destruction
  687. Bony sclerosis
  688. Sequestrum formation
  689. * Loss of plane between soft tissue and muscle
  690. Periosteal reaction
  691. Earliest radiological feature in rheumatoid arthritis is:
  692. Periostitis
  693. Subchondral