SYSTEMS I TEST STUDY GUIDE
Updated 29 OCT 2010 to include electrical systems section.
INTRODUCTION (4/6)
1. The UH-60 (Blackhawk) is a _____, single rotor, semi-monocoque stressed skin constructed fuselage, rotary wing helicopter.
Twin turbine engine
2. The _____ is a fully articulated, four blade, main rotor head, consisting of four subsystems; main rotor blades, hub, flight controls and the bifilar vibration absorber.
Main rotor
3. A rigid crossbeam, two blade, four paddle tail rotor system provides _____.
Anti-torque action and directional control
4. The helicopter has a conventional, ______landing gear consisting of two main gear assemblies and a tail wheel assembly.
Non-retractable
5. The 20 degree canted tail rotor also provides _____ of the total lifting force in a hover.2.5%
6. Design weight is _____.16,825 lbs
7.An _____ is located in the nose of the aircraft.
Avionics compartment
8. The deck load limit is ____ per square foot.
300 pounds
9. Maximum capacity for each storage compartment is _____.125 pounds
10. The hydraulic accumulator and hand pump in the aft midsection cabin ceiling provide the hydraulic pressure for driving the _____.
APU starter
11. The tail wheel can be locked in a trail position by a TAIL WHEEL switch in the cockpit lower console miscellaneous switch panel indicating _____.
LOCK or UNLK
12. A high-rate discharge fire extinguishing system provides a two-shot, main and reserve (2 fire bottles) capability to either main engine compartment or _____ compartment.
APU
13. Each engine platform is capable of supporting a static weight of _____ pounds.
400
14. Two ____, one in front of each pilot on the glare shield contain the following capsules labeled; MASTER CAUTION PRESS TO RESET (amber), #1 ENG OUT, #2 ENG OUT, FIRE and LOW ROTOR RPM.
Master warning panels
15. The PDU displays the engine power turbine speed (% RPM 1 and 2), rotor speed (% RPM R), and _____.
Torque (% TRQ 1 and 2)
16. Each accessory module provides mounting and drive for an _____ and a hydraulic pump package.
Electrical generator
17. A drag beam switch (WOW, weight on wheels) is located on the airframe at the _____ attaching point.
Left drag beam (may be installed on both sides usually on the left hand side)
18. When releasing the parking brakes with the main rotor turning, ensure pressure is applied to _____ pedals.
both
19. Emergency exits are displayed in the operator’s manual, chapter 9, fig _____.
9-1
What parts of the aircraft can be jettisoned?
Cockpit doors and cargo door windows (move emer egress handle aft)
What is the minimum crew required for flight?
2 – Pilot and copilot
What is the basic weight and the maximum gross weight (modified)?
11,000 (empty), 22,000 (modified)
What is the fuel load?
360 gallons (180 gallons each tank)
The emergency equipment consists of?
Three first aid kits, two hand held portable fire extinguishers and a crash axe
The Slab battery has a life of ___ day ___night @ ____% charge.
38, 24, 80
The stabilator provides ____.
Longitudinal stability in forward flight and enhanced handling qualities
Do you have to open the drive shaft covers to inspect the tail rotor drive shafts? No
The APU has what kind of starter?
Hydraulic
ENG out light illuminates at ___
< 55% Ng
low rotor illuminates at____
< 96%
fuel low light illuminates at
172 lbs
The engine is divided into 4 modules ___, ___, ___, ___.
Cold section, hot section, accessory section (Ng) and power turbine section (Np)
The tail rotor spins ___.
Counterclockwise
At design weight (16,825 lbs), (two stage) struts should prevent the fuselage from contacting the ground when landing at approximately ____.
11.25 g’s
The forward tub structures have ______under the cockpit floor.
Four horizontal, anti-plow beams
The fuselage may be broken down into how many sections?
6 – Nose, mid fuselage, aft fuselage (transition section), tail cone, tail rotor pylon, main rotor pylon
How many pitot tubes and where?
Two- left and right side above pilots heads
What is the APU hydraulic accumulator(s) used for?
Used to start the APU using hydraulic pressure, re-pressurized by backup hydraulic pump or hand pump.
Energy absorbing pilot seats are ballistic tolerant against what?
7.62 mm rounds
The AFCS(automatic flight control system) does what?
Enhances the stability and handling qualities of the helicopter
Two accessory modules drive what?
No1 and 2 hydraulic pump modules and the no1 and 2 ac generators
ENGINE(9/12)
20. TGT and ____ can be the best cockpit instruments used for identifying, and reacting to engine malfunctions.
RPMR
21. A gearbox that mechanically drives engine accessory components, every ____ component is driven relative to NG speed.
AGB
22. Keep in mind that operational knowledge of the engine and its instruments revolves around the understanding of the two main operational sections of _____, which operate within the four modules.
Ng and Np(Ng drives Np which drives Nr)
23. Power turbine speed (Np)drives the _____.
Main rotor
24. The oil temperature detector, or sensor, transmits oil temperature to the cockpit (CDU via SDC), the “Eng. Oil temp” caution light illuminates at ____.
150 degrees C
25. The alternator forwards an Ng signal to the cockpit (CDU via SDC), and supplies electrical power to the _____.
Engine ignition and Electrical Control Unit (ECU)
26. The speed switch commands the starter valve to open until the Ng speed reaches a minimum of 52% Ng. _____, the start valve will close extinguishing the starter caution light.
Between 52 – 65% Ng
27. When engine is controlled with the ENG POWER CONT lever in ____, engine response is much faster and TGT limiting system is inoperative. Care must be taken not to exceed _____ in operating range.
LOCKOUT, TGT limits and keeping % RPM R and % RPM 1 and 2
28. Pulling _____on the PCL activates the abort start switch.
Downward
29. To accomplish a cross bleed start, the running engine should be at 90 % Ng with the RPM Rat 100%, and the engine anti-ice advisory light _____.
Off
30. Minimum oil pressure is 20 PSI below _____ or 35 PSI above _____.
90% Ng, 90% Ng
31. The alternator powers all essential _____ functions. Engine
32. When alternator power is absent (alternator failure) all ECU circuits except _____ protection and the history data feed are rendered inoperative.
Np overspeed
33. Pilot authority to adjust the Np reference is limited to ____ rpm 1 or 2, with the pilot side switch having authority should both switches be actuated at the same time.
96-100%
34. The Np O/S protection activates when the Np speed exceeds 22,200 RPM (_____).
(106 +- 1 percent)
35. The _____ mechanically positions Variable geometry (VG) linkage.
HMU
36. If an ECU malfunction causes an un-commanded power reduction as low as idle (low side failure), the pilot can reclaim lost power through_____.
ECU lockout
37. The POU has _____ functions: sequences start fuel to two primer nozzles, sequences main fuel to twelve main fuel injectors, purges start and main fuel manifolds and nozzles/injectors, and fuel flow cut back to provide NP O/S protection IAW the ECU input.
Four
38. The _____ ANTI-ICEON light is illuminated via a thermal switch inside the inlet when the inlet temperature reaches 93 degrees C.
ENG INLET
39. The Anti-ice start bleed valve (AISBV) in the open position will make the _____ advisory appear.
ENG ANTI-ICE ON
Eng Anti-ice and eng inlet anti-ice are ____ activated, will come on automatically if ___is lost, and result in ____ loss MTA.
Pilot, electricity, 16%
Oil use is what?
1qt per 6 ½ hours
The bleed function of the AISBV is controlled solely by the _____.
HMU
The AISBV opening/closing point occurs typically at about ____ or between ____Ng.
30% TQ 88-92%Ng
Ng has ___ stage axial and ___ stage centrifugal compressor, driven by __ stage gas generator (GG) turbine.
5 , 1, 2
P2.5 air is used for what?
Bleed air for cross bleed start, cockpit heat, pressurization of ERFS, export to other heli
The HMU 3 main functions are?
LDS (collective input), PAS (power control lever input) and the Torque Motor (ECU- engine governor) input
What does the IPS (inlet particle separator) do?
Suctions dirty air and blows overboard (not effective in sheet ice)
Compressed air originates from 4 sources, what are they?
Apu, no1 or 2 engine, or external
When is TGT limiting not operational?
During start, alternator failure, ECU lockout, Compressor Stall
What is required for a cross bleed start?
90%Ng speed, RPM R 100%, Eng Anti-ice ON advisory light off. Results in 18% loss of MTA
The oil pump has how many elements?
1 pump element and 6 scavenge elements
The oil tack holds _____ quarts.
7
Minimum oil press is ___ psi below ___ Ng or ___ psi above ___Ng. When temp reaches ____ eng oil temp caution light illuminates.
20, 90%, 35, 90%, 150 C
The ECU has ___ functions.
7, (tgt limiting, Np governing 100%, load sharing, Np overspeed protection 106 +-1, Conditioning Np and TQ signals for cockpit, History Data recorder, Np reference 96-100% RPM 1 or 2)
When alternator fails, all ECU circuits except what are inop?
Np O/S protection and History data feed
Fuel pressure sensor trips at ___psi.
9
Engine driven fuel boost pump has ___ to ___ output. 45 to 90 psi
The HMU is mounted to and _____ by the ____.
Driven, AGB
The HMU has __ functions?
9 (PMCANVTEO)(Fuel Pumping, Fuel flow metering, collective pitch compensation thru LDS, Acceleration/Deceleration fuel flow limiting, Ng limiting 103%/shutdown 110%, Variable Geometry positioning, TQ motor to trim Ng gov, ECU lockout, Open vapor vent for fuel system priming)
Three primary HMU function affecting adjustment of fuel flow via metering valve.
LDS input, ECU input, PAS input
TQ motor accepts three inputs?
TGT limiting, Np governing, load sharing/tq matching
If the alternator supply providing the Ng signal is interrupted, a loss of the cockpit ____ will occur causing the respective ______and the _____.
Ng indication, engine out master warning light to illuminate, audible warning (Ng <55%)
If the alternator fails completely, what will be the indications?
Loss of: %RPM 1 or 2, TQ indications, with corresponding engine increasing to max power. TGT limiting inop
FLIGHT CONTROLS AND HYDRAULICS (11/16)
40. The _____ combines, sums and couples cyclic collective and yaw inputs.
Mechanical mixing unit (reduces pilot workload)
41. The four functions of the MMU are _____.
Collective to pitch, roll, yaw and yaw to pitchknow what yaw to pitch means
42. The first or second stage primary servo pressure caution lights will appear if there is a _____.
Loss of pressure
43. When the pressure drops below _____ the switch illuminates the SAS off caution light.
2,000 PSI (ie hydraulic leak of some kind)
44. The tail rotor servo is a two stage component and ____ is pressurized at any one time.
One stage
45. In the event both cables break, this spring places the pilot valve in a position that gives a positive pitch of ____ in the tail rotor if there is a pressurized tail rotor servo.
10.5 degrees
46. The two micro switches illuminate the tail rotor quadrant caution light if one of the ____ breaks.
Tail rotor cables
47. Under normal operation, the first stage tail rotor servo is pressurized by the first stage hydraulic system and the back-up pump can pressurize it, when the #1 pump fails. The second stage tail rotor servo is pressurized by the ____.
Backup pump
48. The low level sensing switch will close the circuit and illuminate the #1, #2 and/or back-up pump ____ light on the caution/advisory panel (60% fluid remaining).
RSVR LOW
49. A Back-up pump thermal switch is incorporated that limit’s the motors ground operation to 165 +- 5 degrees C. The switch is _____ in flight by the drag beam switch.
Disabled
50. The ____ valve is electrically connected to the back-up pump and it’s purpose is to unload the AC motor on the back-up pump during the start cycle.
Depressurizing
51. The ____ shuts off flow to the accumulator if flow rate exceeds 1.5 GPM.
Velocity fuse
52. The ____ will recharge the accumulator regardless of what position the back-up pump switch is in.
Backup pump
53. The ____ in the transfer module will isolate a leaking #1 or #2 pump.
Transfer valve
54. Electrical interlock ensures both____ can’t isolate both PRI SVO stages.
Pilots
55. The back-up pump motor is a _____.
115-volt, 3-phase, 12 ¾ horsepower, AC motor
The MMU does what?
Reduces pilot workload by minimizing inherent control coupling
What are the three interchangeable primary main rotor servo assemblies?
Consist of two independent stages arranged in parallel config: forward longitudinal, aft longitudinal, and lateral servos.
These servos are ______tolerant.
Ballistic
The trim actuators are controlled by the SAS 2 / FPS computer trip program which is activated by the _____ and ______.
Trim switch on AFCS switch panel , the cyclic trim release switch.
The pitch trim actuator is part of the pitch trim assemble and is a ______actuator operated in conjunction with the SAS/FPS computer.
Eletrohydromechanical
The pitch boost servo does what?
Dampens impact of the SAS
The pilot assist consists of what?
Collective, yaw and pitch boost SVOs, 3 pitch roll yaw SAS actuators and the pitch, roll, and yaw trim actuators
The hydraulic pump filter indicator buttons will pop at _____?
70 psid +- 10 (7 buttons, 7th is on the PA module pops at 1375 psi)
What does the LDI do?
Isolates leaks in the #1 T/R SVO and PA area
What does the transfer valve do?
Isolates a leaking hydraulic pump
How can the pilot isolate a leak?
Using primary SVO off switch.
What is unique about the backup hydraulic pump?
Thermal protection(cut pwr @ 160deg) and AC power
When is the APU accumulator low?
2600 psi or below
When the main rotor is turning, what do the #1 and #2 hydraulic pumps supply?
3000psi hydraulic pressure
Each pump has a what?
Pressure and return filter
The return filter has a bypass capability, should the differential pressure reach ____.
100 +-10 psid
The pitch trim servo is unique, why?
A pressure reducer with relief valve in the pilot assist module reduces the 3000 psi to 1000 psi for use by the pitch trim servo
What supplies hydraulic pressure to flight controls when on ground, main rotors not turning?
Backup hydraulic pump
What 4 cautions and 1 advisory turn on the backup pump when ac power available?
#1 reservoir low, #1 hydraulic pump, #1 tail rotor servo, #2 hydraulic pump, APU Accum
Is there priority between the pilot and copilot SVO off switches?
No, 1st come 1st serve
Can the #1 and #2 Primary SVOs be isolated simultaneously?
No, an electrical interlock prevents this from occurring
Hydraulic fluid levels may be up to ____ into the overfill zone when fluid is hot.
3/8th inch (black or blue zone)
What should be noted regarding the labels on the hydraulic pumps?
If temp exceeds 132 C on label, entry shall be made on DA 2408-13-1 and not flown
The hydraulic pumps can be replenished using what?
A servicing hand pump, select desired pump,fill then leave on #4 position (capped off)
AFCS(7/10)
56. Purpose of the ____ is to enhance the stability and handling qualities of the helicopter.
AFCS
57. The SAS enhances ____ stability in pitch roll and yaw axes.
Dynamic
58. Two _____ receive airspeed, collective stick position, pitch rate and lateral acceleration information to program the stabilator through the dual electric ____.
Stabilator amplifiers, Actuators
59. The test button is operational at airspeeds below ____ knots and is used to ground check the ______system.
60, fault monitor
60. The #1 STAB actuator can be moved with battery power via the _____.
DC ESS BUS
61. Both SAS together have 10% control authority, a single SAS system has _____%.
5
62. The yaw trim actuator and electric collective to airspeed to yaw coupling has maximum effect below ____ knots, no effect above ____ knots. 40, 100
63. Digital AFCS _____, work in the pitch, roll and yaw axes.
SAS2 and FPS
64. FPS will attempt to hold attitude in pitch and roll, also heading in yaw above and below 60 knots. But above 60 knots in the pitch and yaw FPS also provides _____.
Airspeed hold and turn coordination
65. Stabilator automatic function provides streamlining, collective compensation, angle of incidence (variable) _____ and pitch rate feedback.
Lateral to side slip (SCALP)
The stabilator control system provides the helicopter with stability in the _____ by controlling the position of the horizontal stabilator.
Pitch axis
The AFCS provides the helicopter with _____ and _____ stability.
Static(long term), dynamic (short term)
The stabilator is programmed to do what?
SCALP – Streamlines (minimize nose up attitude), Collective coupling, Angle of incidence, Lateral Pitch Coupling (turn signal, left turn/stab down, right turn/stab up), Pitch rate feedback to improve dynamic stability
The limits of the Stabilator are?
9 up / 39 down
How many actuators service the stabilator?
2
Auto mode disengages if positions disagree by what?
10 degrees error at 0 kts / 4 degrees error at 150 kts
If SAS 1 has failed will there be an indication?
Nothing visual but lack of aircraft stability
The AFCS is comprised of 4 functions, what are they?
SAS, Trim, FPS and Stabilator
Which SAS has self-diagnostic capabilities?
SAS 2
SAS 1 is controlled by and receives signal from what?
SAS 1 amplifier controls SAS 1(avionics compartment), receives pitch signal from the #1 Stabilator amplifier, a roll signal from the pilot’s vertical gyro, and a yaw signal from an internal rate gyro.
SAS 2 is controlled by and receives signal from what?
SAS/FPS computer controls SAS 2, receives pitch signal from the #2 stabilator amplifier, a roll signal from a roll rate gyro and a yaw signal from a yaw rate gyro, co-located in an EMI hardened enclosure in the avionics compartment
The FPS system provides ______rate dampening in the pitch, roll and yaw axes.
Long term
When the FPS is coupled with trim it has _____ control authority.
100%
The anti-ice inlet turns on at what temp?
4 C Question is something like this and this is the answer, not to be confused with 93 C for a different question.
What does the #1Conv and #2Conv cautions indicate?