1 Oct 04
HQ AFSVA/SVPAR
Annual Standardization Exam
(Test B)
1 October 2004
(supplement with 15 local area questions)
(Required passing score: 80%)
Please do not mark on booklet
1
1 Oct 04
Annual Standardization Exam Questions (35)
(Question 1 references 14 CFR Part 61)
1. You were issued a temporary pilot certificate on August 1st, 2004. Assuming you did not receive a notice that the certificate was denied or revoked, and you have not yet received a permanent certificate, which of the following would be the earliest expiration date of the temporary certificate?
A. November 30th, 2004
B. October 30th, 2004
C. September 30th, 2004
(Questions 2 - 5 reference 14 CFR Part 91)
2. You are departing from a nontowered airport located within Class D airspace. When must you establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area?
A. Prior to takeoff on a discrete frequency
B. Prior to reaching 4 nautical miles from the airport having an operational control tower, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL
C. As soon as practicable after departing
3. (Refer to figure 1, area 3). You are cruising at 6,500 MSL, directly overhead Savannah Intl Airport (SAV). What are your ATC transponder equipment requirements?
A. Not required since the aircraft is above Class C airspace and below 10,000 feet MSL
B. What is Mode S?
C. Operable transponder having either Mode 3/A or Mode S, and Mode C
4. You are planning a day VFR flight in an aero club Cessna 172, and during your review of the maintenance forms, you notice the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) is written up in the forms as inoperative. During your aircraft preflight, you notice the ADF is still installed but not placarded inoperative. Which of the following is a correct procedure before accepting the aircraft for flight? (Note: the club is not using a minimum equipment list for this aircraft)
A. No further action is required since the ADF is not required equipment for day/VFR flight
B. Have the ADF deactivated and placarded “inoperative”
C. Remove the ADF from the aircraft. No entry in the maintenance record is required.
5. (Refer to figure 1, area 3, and figure 2). You are on a day VFR flight to Savannah Intl Airport (SAV) and are currently overhead the town of Springfield (VFR checkpoint approximately 15 nm north-northwest of SAV). Due to lower clouds, you have descended to 1,200 MSL to maintain proper clearance below the clouds. What class of airspace are you flying in and what is the minimum distance required from clouds?
A. Class G; clear of clouds
B. Class E; 500 feet below
C. Class C; 500 feet below
(Question 6 references NTSB Part 830)
6. Which of the following would require immediate notification to the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) field office involving a flight in a light twin-engine piston aircraft?
A. The aircraft had an in-flight failure of electrical systems that required the sustained use of a backup source (i.e. battery)
B. The aircraft had a sustained loss of power by one or more engines
C. The aircraft was overdue and was believed to have been involved in an accident
(Questions 7 - 17 reference FAA-H-8083-25)
7. (Refer to figures 4 thru 6). Given the conditions described in figure 4, calculate the aircraft’s center of gravity (CG) at takeoff and determine if it is within allowable limits.
A. 2,447 lbs; within allowable CG limits
B. 2,454 lbs; within allowable CG limits
C. 2,447 lbs; aft of allowable CG limits
8. During the takeoff phase of flight, ground effect produces some important relationships. The airplane leaving ground effect after takeoff encounters just the reverse of the airplane entering ground effect during landing. Which of the following correctly describes one of these relationships for an airplane leaving ground effect?
A. Require a decrease in angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
B. Experience an increase in induced drag and thrust required.
C. Experience an increase in stability and a nose-down change in moment.
9. Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber. Some common operational causes of detonation include
A. Operating the engine at high power settings with an excessively lean mixture.
B. Using a higher fuel grade than that specified by the aircraft manufacturer.
C. Cruise climbs where cylinder cooling is increased.
10. Excessive weight reduces the flight performance of an airplane in almost every respect. Which of the following are typical performance deficiencies of an overloaded airplane?
A. Excessive weight on nosewheel or tailwheel, increased rate and angle of climb, and longer range
B. Higher maximum altitude, higher takeoff speed, and increased cruising speed
C. Longer takeoff run, higher stalling speed, and reduced maneuverability
11. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and is used to calculate aircraft performance. What effect does humidity have on air density and aircraft performance?
A. Humidity is usually considered one of the most important factors in calculating density altitude and airplane performance.
B. The small amount of water vapor in the atmosphere is negligible; therefore, it has no effect on density altitude and aircraft performance.
C. As the water content of the air increases, the air becomes less dense, increasing density altitude and decreasing performance.
12. An aviation routine weather report, or METAR, is an observation of current surface weather reported in a standard international format. Decipher the following METAR.
Given: METAR KSAT 101453Z 33004KT 7SM BKN080 OVC250 28/21 A3008 RMK AO2 SLP168 T02780211 51007
A. San Antonio TX [KSAT] hourly observation on the 10th at 2:53pm UTC (1453Z) wind 330° magnetic at 4 knots, visibility 7 nautical miles, 8,000 feet broken, 25,000 feet overcast, temperature 28°F, dewpoint 21°F, altimeter 30.08, automated station with precipitation discriminator, sea level pressure 1016.8 hPa, temperature 27.8°F, dewpoint 21.1°F, turbulence beginning at 1,000 feet and 700 feet thick.
B. San Antonio TX [KSAT] hourly observation on the 10th at 2:53pm UTC (1453Z) wind 330° true at 4 knots, visibility 7 statute miles, 8,000 feet broken, 25,000 feet overcast, temperature 28°C, dewpoint 21°C, altimeter 30.08, automated station with precipitation discriminator, sea level pressure 1016.8 hPa, temperature 27.8°C, dewpoint 21.1°C, 3-hour barometric pressure increasing then steady, or increasing then increasing more slowly by 0.7 hPa.
- San Antonio TX [KSAT] hourly observation on the 10th at 2:53pm UTC (1453Z) wind 330° true at 4 knots, visibility 7 statute miles, 800 feet broken, 2,500 feet overcast, temperature 28°C, dewpoint 21°C, altimeter 30.08, automated station with precipitation discriminator, sea level pressure 1016.8 hPa, temperature 27.8°C, dewpoint 21.1°C, 3-hour barometric pressure increasing then steady, or increasing then increasing more slowly by 0.7 hPa.
13. Each AIRMET bulletin has a fixed alphanumeric designator, numbered sequentially for easy identification, beginning with the first issuance of the day. Which of the following AIRMET codes is properly identified?
A. “SIERRA” – denotes instrument flight rules and mountain obscuration.
B. “TANGO” – denotes turbulence and sustained surface of 20 knots or greater.
C. “ZULU” – denotes low ceilings and/or visibilities.
14. Proper planning can prevent runway incursions and the possibility of a ground collision. A pilot should be aware of the airplane’s position on the surface at all times and be aware of other aircraft and vehicle operations on the airport. Which of the following are some practices to help prevent a runway incursion at a towered airport?
A. When landing, always clear the active runway at the departure end unless ATC issues other instructions, then automatically switch to ground control immediately after clearing the runway.
B. Read back all runway crossing and/or hold instructions, and check for traffic before crossing any Runway Hold Line and before entering a taxiway.
C. Review Flight Data Center (FDC) Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) for information on runway/taxiway closures and construction areas.
15. An airport advisory area is an area within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating, but where a ______is located, and provides advisory service to arriving and departing aircraft.
A. UNICOM
B. Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)
C. Flight Service Station (FSS)
16. (Refer to figure 1, areas 3 and 4). Determine the time, distance (nm), compass heading (CH), and fuel burned for a direct flight from overhead Savannah Intl Airport (SAV) (N32-07.65 W081-12.13) to overhead Plantation Airpark (JYL) (N32-38.73 W081-35.79) based on the following conditions.
Given:
True Airspeed (TAS): 100 knots
Winds Aloft: 360° true at 20 knots
Fuel Rate: 8 gallons per hour
Deviation: -2°
A. 27 minutes, 337°, 3.6 gallons
B. 19 minutes, 325°, 2.6 gallons
C. 22 minutes, 327°, 2.9 gallons.
17. During each flight, decisions must be made regarding events involving interactions between the four risk elements – the pilot in command, the airplane, the environment, and the operation. The decision-making process involves an evaluation of each of these risk elements to achieve an accurate perception of the flight situation. Which of the following best describes the pilot in command risk element?
A. The pilot’s decision to undertake or continue a flight as planned.
B. The pilot’s fitness to fly must be evaluated including competency in the airplane, currency, and flight experience.
C. The pilot’s assessment of weather, air traffic control, navaids, and terrain.
(Questions 18 – 28 reference AIM)
18. (Refer to figure 7). Which of the following defines the type of sign and its purpose?
A. Runway Boundary Sign. This sign faces the runway and is visible to pilots exiting the runway. It is located next to the yellow holding position markings painted on the taxiway pavement. Taxi past this sign to be sure you are clear of the runway.
B. Runway Approach Area Holding Position Sign. If instructed by ATC, hold here until cleared to cross. Taxiing past this sign may interfere with operations on the runway. It is located next to the yellow holding position markings painted on the taxiway pavement.
C. Runway Holding Position Sign. If this is your departure runway, or if instructed by ATC, hold here. This sign is located next to the yellow holding position marking painted on taxiways that intersect runways and on runways that intersect other runways.
19. In addition to the use of radar for the control of IFR aircraft, all commissioned radar facilities provide the following basic radar services for VFR aircraft.
A. Safety alerts (includes terrain/obstruction alerts and aircraft conflict alerts)
B. Stage 1 and 2 service.
C. Sequencing at all terminal locations.
20. When making routine code changes, civilian pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of the following codes to prevent momentary false alarms at automated ground facilities.
A. 4000 and any code starting with 7XXX
B. Discrete codes in the 7500 series (i.e. 7501 – 7577)
C. 7500, 7600, 7700, 7777
21. Improper use of call signs can result in pilots executing a clearance intended for another aircraft. Pilots, therefore, must be certain that aircraft identification is complete and clearly identified before taking action on an ATC clearance. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of aircraft callsigns?
A. If the ATC specialist responds with an abbreviated aircraft call sign after communications are established, then the pilot may use the abbreviated call sign in subsequent contacts with the ATC specialist.
B. Civil aircraft pilots should state the aircraft type, model or manufacturer's name, followed by the digits/letters of the registration number. When the aircraft manufacturer's name or model is stated, the prefix "N" must be included.
C. Student pilots wishing additional assistance while operating in areas of concentrated air traffic should identify themselves as a student pilot during each call to an FAA radio facility.
22. Controllers are required to separate small aircraft (12,500 pounds or less, maximum certificated takeoff weight) departing (same or opposite direction) from an intersection behind a large nonheavy aircraft on the same runway. What is the minimum time interval required between the large aircraft’s takeoff and the start of the small aircraft’s takeoff roll?
A. No minimum interval required – pilot’s discretion only.
B. 2 minutes
C. 3 minutes
23. Pilots are urged to use only the latest issue of aeronautical charts in planning and conducting flight operations. In the conterminous U.S., Sectional Charts are updated how often?
A. Every 56 days
B. Every 6 months
C. Every 56 days with a change notice issued every 28 days
24. [D1]You have inadvertently flown your Cessna 172 into a temporary flight restrictions area during daylight hours and have been intercepted by a military aircraft. Upon arrival overhead an aerodrome the military aircraft begins circling and lowers the landing gear. Afterward, the military aircraft flies down the runway. What does the military aircraft want you to do and what should be your actions?
A. You may proceed. Rock your wings to acknowledge the military aircraft and continue the flight.
B. Land at this aerodrome. Rock your wings to acknowledge the military aircraft and land on the nearest suitable runway.
C. Land at this aerodrome. You should follow the military aircraft (watch out for wake turbulence), and if after overflying the runway a landing is considered safe, proceed to land.
25. When is aircraft operational testing of an analog emergency locator transmitter (ELT) allowed?
A. During the first 5 minutes after any hour, and should be no longer than 3 audible sweeps. Airborne tests are not authorized.
- During the first 5 minutes after any hour, and should be no longer than 3 audible sweeps. Airborne tests are authorized.
C. Should only be tested in accordance with the ELT manufacturer’s instructions.
26. Other than military resources, what is the primary source for obtaining preflight weather briefings?
A. Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS)
B. Automated Flight Service Stations (AFSS/FSS)
C. Any weather products provided by the public Internet
27. Turbulence, hail, rain, snow, lightning, sustained updrafts and downdrafts, icing conditions-all are present in thunderstorms. There is no useful correlation between the external visual appearance of thunderstorms and the severity or amount of turbulence or hail within them. Since avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy, which of the following are good thunderstorm avoidance practices?
A. Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo. Circumnavigate the entire area if the area has 6/10 thunderstorm coverage.
B. Regard as extremely hazardous any thunderstorm with tops 25,000 feet or higher whether the top is visually sighted or determined by radar. Flying under a thunderstorm when you can see through to the other side is safe.
C. Vivid and frequent lightning indicates the probability of a strong thunderstorm. Landing and takeoff in the face of an approaching thunderstorm should be used to avoid decreased performance caused by gust fronts.
28. In a slow hover taxi or stationary hover near the surface, helicopter main rotor(s) generate downwash producing high velocity outwash vortices. When rotor downwash hits the surface, the resulting outwash vortices have behavioral characteristics similar to wing tip vortices produced by fixed wing aircraft. Pilots of small aircraft should avoid operating within ______rotor diameters of any helicopter in a slow hover taxi or stationary hover.
A. two
B. three
C. four
(Question 29 references AFMAN 34-232 and USAF Aero Club Instructor Standardization Guide)
29. On 2 Jan 04, a pilot accomplished a local area flight in a Cessna 172 and logged 4 takeoffs and landings. Due to official commitments, the pilot was absent from the aero club until 15 Aug 04, and during that time was unable to fly a Cessna 172. Which one of the following statements most accurately describes actions required by the pilot to act as pilot-in-command in the aero club’s Cessna 172?
A. The pilot must accomplish a recurrency check in the Cessna 172.
B. The pilot must reaccomplish the Cessna 172 closed book exam prior to the recurrency check, and then accomplish a recurrency check in the Cessna 172.
C. The pilot need only accomplish 3 takeoffs and landings without passengers, and then is authorized to act as pilot-in-command while carrying passengers.
(Questions 30 – 34 reference AFMAN 34-232)
30. You have just returned from a flight and are taxing to the refueling area, when you notice another aircraft is parked at the refueling area and in the process of being refueled. Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action?
A. Taxi your aircraft close to the aircraft being refueled, leaving enough room for the refueling aircraft to be moved from the area upon completion.
B. Go straight to your parking spot and let someone else refuel your airplane.
C. Do not taxi your aircraft closer than 50 feet from the aircraft being refueled.
31. Which of the following radio calls are required while operating in the traffic pattern at a nontowered airport?
A. self-announce pattern position on base and final leg using the phraseology recommended in the Aeronautical Information Manual
B. self-announce pattern position on downwind, base, and final leg using the phraseology recommended in the Aeronautical Information Manual
C. self-announce pattern position on crosswind, downwind, base, and final leg using the phraseology recommended in the Aeronautical Information Manual
32. A certificated private pilot is planning to practice a simulated forced landing in a PA-28 to an approved runway. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The pilot may continue descent to a landing.
B. The pilot shall not descend below 500 feet AGL.
C. The pilot is not authorized to practice simulated forced landings without an instructor onboard.
33. According to your calculations, the day VFR flight to airport XYZ will take 2 hours and 40 minutes. Based on your total usable fuel and cruise fuel flow, you have determined that you will have 3 hours and 30 minutes of fuel onboard. Should you attempt the flight?
A. Yes, although you don’t have the required fuel reserve. Once airborne, you are allowed to check your fuel calculations to determine if you meet the reserve requirement. If you don’t have enough reserve, you must land at an airport short of your destination for refueling.
B. No, you do not have the required fuel reserve. You may want to consider adding more fuel (if possible) or landing at a closer airport to refuel.
C. Yes, the regulations only require a 30-minute reserve.
34. [D2]Members (not including club CFIs, clearing officials, and club officers/advisors) are responsible for which of the following?
A. Paying established dues and assisting the manager or other club officials in daily club operations when requested.