- 1 -
Bio 309F
Second Examination
March 29, 2005Name______
1. Which scientist is credited with showing that bacteria form a conjugation tube and then transfer DNA from one bacterium to another?
A. Lineus Pauling
B. Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase (Hershey-Chase)
C. Fredrick Griffith
D. Erwin Chargaff
E. Joshua Lederberg
2. Enzyme that forms a new DNA chain using single-stranded DNA as a template
A. RNA polymeraseD. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymeraseE. None of the above
C. DNA ligase
3. Enzyme that covalently links DNA strands together
A. DNA polymeraseD. DNA ligase
B. HelicaseE. None of the above
C. Primase
4. The experiments of Avery and co-workers in 1946 led to the conclusion that:
A. bacterial transformation occurs only in the laboratory
B. capsule proteins can attach to uncoated cells
C. DNA is the transforming agent and is the genetic material
D. DNA must be complexed with protein in bacterial chromosomes
E. none of the above
5. Enzyme that makes an RNA strand from a DNA template
A. DNA polymeraseD. DNA ligase
B. RNA polymeraseE. None of the above
C. Primase
6. The genetic code of life is composed of 4 nucleotides (G:C:A:T). A single codon is composed of ______nucleotides
A. 1D. 4
B. 2E. 6
C. 3
7. A start codon is found on
A. mRNAD. DNA
B. tRNAE. none of the above
C. rRNA
8. A gene has 5 exons and 4 introns. Exon 1 has 18 nucleotides, exon 2 has 24 nucleotides, exon three has 12 nucleotides, exon four has 6 nucleotides, , exon five has 21 nucleotides, intron 1 has 30 nucleotides, intron 2 has 15 nucleotides, intron 3 has 12 nucleotides and intron 4 has 15 nucleotides. This gene will code for a protein that has ______amino acids.
A. 12D. 51
B. 18E. 24
C. 27
9. Biological functions of proteins/polypeptides (mechanism whereby the genetic information of a gene is carried out by proteins) are determined by
A. number of amino acids
B. ratio of specific amino acids
C. sequence of amino acids
D. secondary structure of peptide chain
E. none of the above
10. During transcription, the following RNA(s) will be involved in the process
A. ribosomal RNAD. B and C are correct
B. transfer RNAE. A, B, and C are correct
C. message RNA
11. Are any of the statements below incorrect? If yes, which one?
A. DNA is composed of A,T,C,G nucleotides
B. RNA is composed of A,U,C,G nucleotides
C. DNA is composed of a double helix
D. RNA is composed of deoxyribose sugar
E. All are correct
12. The size of a gene is defined by
A. start codonD. A and B
B. stop codonE. A, B, and C are correct
C. Introns
13. Pre-message RNA (mRNA) is
A. found in the nucleusD. found in the mitochondria
B. found in the cytoplasmE. none of the above
C. found associated with endoplasmic reticulum
14. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA is: AUA GCG AGC GCC. A tRNA with an anticodon of UCG will exhibit complementary base paring with which codon?
A. AUA
B. GCG
C. AGC
D. GCC
15. The ratio of DNA bases was discovered by: (A: T ratio was 1:1 and the G: C ratio was 1:1)
A. Lineus Pauling
B. Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase (Hershey-Chase)
C. Fredrick Griffith
D. Erwin Chargaff
E. Joshua Lederberg
16. What contribution did Dr.Rosalind Franklin provide to the discovery of the DNA double helix?
A. provided critical X-ray diffraction analyses of the structure of highly purified DNA
B. provided critical chemical analyses of the sugar composition of DNA
C. provided critical chemical analyses of the phosphate composition of DNA
D. provided critical chemical analyses of the sequence of DNA base nucleotides
E. none of the above
17. DNA is composed of:
A. deoxyribose sugar
B. ribose sugar
C. purines A and G and pyrimidines T and C
D. purines A and G and pyrimidines U and C
E. A and C are correct
18. RNA is composed of:
A. deoxyribose sugar
B. ribose sugar
C. purines A and G and pyrimidines T and C
D. purines A and G and pyrimidines U and C
E. B and D are correct
19. If you were trying to identify the start of a particular gene, what would you look for?
A. presence of enhancer (regulator) sequences
B. presence of promotor sequence
C. presence of initiation
D. B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
20. What can be said about the structure of genes in eukaryotic cells?
A. each gene is in a single segment of DNA
B. each gene is broken into several coding sequences separated by non-coding sequences
C. genes do not have promoter regions
D. A and C are correct
E. none of the above are correct
21. The process of going from DNA to DNA is called:
A. replicationD. translation
B. transcriptionE. transfection
C. transformation
22. The process of going from DNA to mRNA is called:
A. replicationD. translation
B. transcriptionE. transfection
C. transformation
23. The process of going from mRNA to protein is called:
A. replicationD. translation
B. transcriptionE. transfection
C. transformation
24. What size polypeptide chain (number of amino acids) would be produced from mRNA: CUAAGGUACAAAGUUCAU?
A. polypeptide chain containing 1amino acid
B. polypeptide chain containing 2 amino acids
C. polypeptide containing 4 amino acids
D. polypeptide containing 6 amino acids
E. polypeptide containing 18 amino acids
25. Given the mRNA sequence of AUA ACC GAU GUC, what is the DNA sequence coding for this message?
A. GGG UCG CUU GTC
B. TTT CCG CTT GAC
C. TAT TGG CTA CAG
D. CCC TCG CCC GCG
E. GGG TCG CTT GAC
26. The term "anticodon" is referring to:
A. exon of geneD. rRNA
B. intron of geneE. tRNA
C. mRNA
27. The term "codon" is referring to:
A. exon of gene
B. intron of gene
C. mRNA
D. rRNA
E. tRNA
28. The coding sequence of the gene coding for the hemoglobin beta polypeptide chain is composed of 522 base nucleotides. How many amino acids will the beta hemoglobin protein have?
A. 522D. 174
B. 87E. 109
C 219
29. Enzymes are:
A. proteins
B. act as biological catalysts
C. converts substrates into products
D. B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
30. The genetic metabolic block in PKU individuals is inability to convert amino acid phenylalanine to:
A. histidineD. valine
B. cysteineE. tyrosine
C. alanine
31. At birth, PKU babies:
A. express high levels of amino acid tyrosine in their blood
B. express high levels of amino acid phenylalanine in their blood
C. express high levels of amino acid histidine in their blood
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
32. If untreated, the phenotype of PKU individuals will be characterized by:
A. short stature
B. multiple skin folds on the neck
C. low IQ
D. abnormal finger prints
E. all of the above
33. Consider the metabolic pathway Po-----P1------P2------P3. The conversion of P0 to P1 is by enzyme 1, the conversion of P1 to P2 is by enzyme 2, and the conversion of P2 to P3 is by enzyme 3. What would be the consequences of an individual with a mutant (non-functional) enzyme 1?
A. build up of Po compound
B. build up of P1 compound
C. absence of P3 compound
D. A and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
34. Nuclear transfer to clone cattle is done by which of the following techniques?
A. 8-cell embryo is divided into two four-cell embryos and implanted into a surrogate mother
B. 16-cell embryo is divided into two four-cell embryos and implanted into a surrogate mother
C. 2-cell embryo is divided into two four-cell embryos and implanted into a surrogate mother
D. 16-cell embryo is divided into 16 cells, fused with enucleated eggs and implanted into surrogate cows.
E. none of the above
35. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
A. method for amplifying DNA D. method for amplifying rRNA
B. method for amplifying mRNA E. method for amplifying amino acids
C. method for amplifying tRNA
36. Clones can be described as:
A. genetically identical individualsD. A and B are correct
B. Identical cells derived from a single cellE. A, B, and C are correct
C. Identical molecules derived from a single molecule
37. What was unique and important about the cloning of the sheep "Dolly" in 1997?
A. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from embryonic stem cell
B. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from a haploid gamete
C. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from a polar body
D. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from a somatic cell
E. none of the above
38. In a family with 6 children, what is the probability of having 5 boys and 1 girl?
A. 5/32D. 1/64
B. 6/64E. none of the above
C. 10/32
39. Watson and Crick received the Nobel Prize for:
A. generating x-ray crystallographic data of DNA structure
B. establishing that DNA replication is semiconservative
C. solving the structure of DNA
D. proving that RNA is the genetic material
E. showing that the amount of A equals the amount of T
40. Which of the following is a nucleotide of DNA?
A. deoxyribose + thymine + phosphate group
B. deoxyribose + nitrogenous base
C. ribose + pyrimidine + phosphate group
D. deoxyribose + uracil + phosphate group
E. none of the above
41. RNA polymerase is active in:
- replicationD. all of the above
- transcriptionE. none of the above
- translation
42. In replication, each double-stranded daughter DNA is composed of one strand which is old and one which is newly synthensized, thus replication:
A. is bidirectionalD. has fidelity
B. is conservativeE. none of the above
C. is semiconservative
43. The human genetic disease phenylketonuria (PKU) results in mental retardation. The mental retardation effect can be diminished by restricting the amount of phenylalanine in the diet. PKU is an example of:
A. a toxid byproduct of blocked metabolic pathway
B. a defective enzyme
C. a disease whose serverity involves the interaction of a gene and the environment
D. all of the above
44. A person that suffers from testicular feminization
A. Is born XYD. A and B are correct
B. Is born XYYE. A and C are correct
C. Has a defect in the androgen receptor
45. Which of the following genetic disorder(s) is/are due to a missense mutation?
A. sickle cell anemia
B. hemoglobin C disease
C. hemoglobin Makassar
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
46. Which of the following genetic disorder(s) is/are due to trinucleotide repeats?
A. fragile-X syndrome
B. myotomic dystrophy
C. Seal Rock
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
47. Which of the following genetic disorder(s) is/are due to defects in DNA repair genes?
A. Fanconi anemia
B. Bloom syndrome
C. xeroderma pigmentosum
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
48. In 1927, U.T. Austin Scientist H. J. Muller irradiated male drosophilia and showed that radiation induced lethal genes in the X chromosome. The drosophilia model used by Muller is referred to as the:
A. ABC model
B. ClB model
C. HJM model
D. IRC model
E. none of the above
49. Frameshift mutations, addition or deletion of a single nucleotide:
A. changes the amino acid sequence of the protein from the site of the mutation to the end of the protein
B. can result in a nonfunctional gene product
C. changes only a single amino acid in the resulting protein
D. results in a functional gene product
E. A and B are correct
50. Bacteria assay for screening chemicals for mutagenic activity is called:
A. Adams PHE negative assay
B. Ames HIS negative assay
C. Arnold MET negative assay
D. Rubin GLU negative assay
E. none of the above
51. Bonus question (2 points).
A mutation that originates in meiosis and affects all cells of an individual is called:
A. conditional mutation
B. dominant-negative mutation
C. germline mutation
D. somatic mutation
E. none of the above