Organismal Biology Section One Exam
Organismal Biology Biol 1030 B & D, Final Exam
Fall 2009, Steven M. Thompson
1. An acid:
A.Is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution, and has a value above seven on the pH scale
B.Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution, and has a value below seven on the pH scale
C.Is a chemical that doesn’t change the hydrogen ions in a solution, and has a value of seven on the pH scale
D.Is a chemical that causes hallucinations
E.Is a chemical that all other chemicals are based upon
2. A base:
A.Is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution, and has a value above seven on the pH scale
B.Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution, and has a value below seven on the pH scale
C.Is a chemical that doesn’t change the hydrogen ions in a solution, and has a value of seven on the pH scale
D.Is a chemical that causes hallucinations
E.Is a chemical that all other chemicals are based upon
3. A covalent bond is a bond:
A.Formed by atoms of opposite charge attracting one another
B.Formed by atoms that share electrons
C.Formed by the interaction of a hydrogen atom and another electronegative atom
D.That is a strong bond, except in the presence of water
E.That is a weak bond
4. If a covalent bond is polar:
A.Electrons are not shared by atoms
B.Protons are shared by atoms
C.One of the atoms has a partial negative charge
D.The bond is not important to living cells
E.The bond is not a strong bond
5. An ionic bond is a bond:
A.Formed by atoms of opposite charge attracting one another
B.Formed by atoms that share electrons
C.Formed by the interaction of a hydrogen atom and another electronegative atom
D.That is a weak bond, except in the presence of water
E.That is not important to living cells
6. The primary building block (monomer) of proteins is:
A.A glucose molecule
B.A fatty acid
C.A nucleotide
D.An amino acid
E.Four interconnected rings
7. The primary building block (monomer) of nucleic acids is:
A.A glucose molecule
B.A fatty acid
C.A nucleotide
D.An amino acid
E.Four interconnected rings
8. The four nitrogenous bases found in RNA are:
A.Adenine, thymine, guanine and uracil
B.Adenine, thymine, cytosine and uracil
C.Thymine, cytosine, guanine and uracil
D.Adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil
E.Alanine, cysteine, glycine and threonine
9. A eukaryotic cell:
A.Has membrane-bounded organelles
B.Has a cell wall with peptidoglycan
C.Is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell
D.Does not have membrane-bounded organelles
E.Does not usually have a nucleus
10. The three domains of life in the Woese system of classification are:
A. Monera, Bacteria and Eukarya
B. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya
C. Fungi, Protista and Animalia
D. Archaea, Eukarya and Protista
E. Monera, Bacteria and Eukarya
11. The theory of endosymbiosis is strengthened by the fact that:
A.The knowledge that chloroplasts and mitochondria have their own DNA very similar tobacterial DNA
B.The knowledge that ribosomes are structures found in all life
C.The knowledge that nuclei are structures only found in Eukarya
D.The knowledge that cell membranes are structures found in all life
E. Endosymbiosis is false –all evidence points at its contradiction
12. Which item does not pertain to chloroplasts?
A.They have their own DNA
B.They are the product of an endosymbiotic event
C.They occur in plants and some protists
D.They carry out photosynthesis to produce glucose
E.They extract energy in the form of ATP from nutrients
13. Which item does not pertain to mitochondria?
A.They have their own DNA
B.They are the product of an endosymbiotic event
C.They occur in plants and some protists
D.They carry out photosynthesis to produce glucose
E.They extract energy in the form of ATP from nutrients
14. Enzymes speed chemical reactions by:
A.Lowering the amount of reactants that are needed
B.Maintaining chemical equilibrium
C.Lowering the energy required to activate a chemical reaction
D.Raising the temperature of the surroundings
E.By supplying energy to the reaction process
15. Competitive inhibition of enzymes:
A.Occurs when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site
B.Occurs when a substance other than the substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme
C.Occurs when one enzyme shames another enzyme into inhibition
D.Is never used to regulate the metabolism of the cell
E.Can not be initiated with drugs
16. Noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes:
A.Occurs when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site
B.Occurs when a substance other than the substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme
C.Occurs when one enzyme shames another enzyme into inhibition
D.Is never used to regulate the metabolism of the cell
E.Can not be initiated with drugs
17. Oxidation means:
A.The gain of oxygen by a cell
B.The loss of oxygen by a cell
C.The gain of electrons by a molecule
D.The loss of electrons from a molecule
E.The loss of water from a molecule
18. Reduction means:
A.The gain of oxygen by a cell
B.The loss of oxygen from a cell
C.The gain of electrons by a molecule
D.The loss of electrons by a molecule
E.The gain of water to a molecule
19. The sole source of ATP production in cells only using fermentation is:
A.Glycolysis
B.Kreb's cycle
C.Photosynthesis
D.Electron transport
E.The Calvin cycle
20. The electron transport chain produces a(n) ______gradient:
A.Electron
B.Proton
C.ATP
D.NADH
E.Oxygen
21. In Eukaryotes the Kreb’s cycle and the electron transport system occurs in the:
A.Mitochondria
B.Lysosome
C.Nucleus
D.Cytoplasm
E.Ribosome
22. The reactants (things that go in) for cellular respiration are:
A.Glucose and ATP
B.Water and ATP
C.Oxygen and ATP
D.Carbon dioxide and glucose
E.Glucose and oxygen
23. The products (things that come out) of cellular respiration are:
A.Glucose, water and ATP
B.Glucose, carbon dioxide and ATP
C.Oxygen, ATP and water
D.Carbon dioxide, water and ATP
E.Carbon dioxide, glucose and water
24. Photosystem I and photosystem II are respectively part of:
A.The light reactions and the carbon (a.k.a. light-independent) reactions
B.The light-independent reactions and the Calvin cycle
C.The Calvin cycle and the Hobbes reaction
D.The light reactions only
E.The Calvin cycle only
25. The two stages of photosynthesis are:
A.The light reactions and the carbon (a.k.a. light-independent) reactions
B.The light-independent reactions and the Calvin cycle
C.The Calvin cycle and the Hobbes reaction
D.The light reactions only
E.The Calvin cycle only
26. Leaves appear green because:
A.Most of the wavelengths of green light are absorbed by chlorophyll
B.Most of the wavelengths of green light are absorbed by carotenoids
C.Most of the wavelengths of green light are reflected by chlorophyll
D.Most of the wavelengths of green light are reflected by carotenoids
E.That’s the only wavelength we can detect
27. The energy source for the process of photosynthesis is:
A.Oxygen
B.Carbon dioxide
C.Chlorophyll
D.Glucose
E.Sunlight
28. The main product of the carbon reactions is:
A.NADPH
B.Carbon dioxide
C.Oxygen
D.ATP
E.Glucose
29. A sequence of DNA nucleotides coding for a specific protein or RNA molecule is a:
A.Gene
B.Genome
C.Chromosome
D.All of the above are correct
E.None of the above are correct
30. Which phrase does not belong? The polymerase chain reaction:
A.Is used to amplify minute quantities of DNA into enough to analyze with sequencing techniques
B. Can be used to identify missing persons or identify body parts
C. Can be used to identify disease-causing microbes
D.Can be used on any random piece of unknown DNA
E. Requires a pair of laboratory made primers of a known sequence
31. One of two identical copies of a replicated chromosome attached by the centromere defines the term:
A.Centromere
B.Chromatin
C.Chromosome
D.Chromatid
E.Nucleosome
32. A cell with two full sets of chromosomes would be termed a ______cell.
A.Haploid
B.Diploid
C.Sister
D.Somatic
E.Germ
33. The splitting of a cell into two daughter cells in the overall cell cycle is:
A.Mitosis
B.Interphase
C.Metaphase
D.Anaphase
E.Cytokinesis
34. The division of the nucleus during the overall cell cycle is:
A.Mitosis
B.Interphase
C.Synthesis
D.Cytokinesis
E.Replication
35. The replication of DNA during the overall cell cycle occurs during:
A.Mitosis
B.Interphase
C.Cytokinesis
D.Prophase
E.Telophase
36. The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis is:
A.Interphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase - anaphase
B.Interphase - metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase
C.Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
D.Anaphase - prophase - metaphase - telophase
E.Prophase - anaphase - telophase - metaphase
37. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell is:
A.Prophase
B.Prometaphase
C.Metaphase
D.Anaphase
E.Telophase
38. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell is:
A.Prophase
B.Prometaphase
C.Metaphase
D.Anaphase
E.Telophase
39. Meiosis is a process that produces:
A.Haploid sperm or egg gametes
B.Diploid somatic cells
C.Diploid sperm or egg gametes
D.Haploid somatic cells
E.Nothing
40. The process by which a bacterium uses a sex pilus to transfer genetic information to another bacterium is:
A.Parthenogenesis
B.Conjugation
C.Apomixis
D.Mitosis
E.Replication
41. A zygote is:
A.A haploid cell
B.The haploid product of fertilization
C.The diploid product of fertilization
D.A product of meiosis
E.A product of mitosis
42. In meiosis, DNA replicates during:
A.Prophase one
B.Prophase two
C.Interphase one
D.Interphase two
E.Metaphase two
43. In meiosis, homologous chromosomes (not sister chromatids) separate during:
A.Prophase one
B.Prophase two
C.Metaphase one
D.Anaphase one
E.Anaphase two
44. If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is:
A.Homologous
B.Heterozygous
C.Homozygous
D.Dominant
E.Recessive
45. Mendel's monohybrid cross of "Tt" parents resulted in a tall to short ratio of:
A.9:3:3:1
B.4:1
C.3:1
D.2:1
E.1:1
46. If any of the traits that Mendel worked with had been due to linked genes, his dihybrid crosses:
A.Would have had different results
B.Would have produced more offspring
C.Would have produced less offspring
D.Would have exhibited a typical phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1
E.Would have produced sterile offspring
47. A dihybrid cross of linked genes theoretically gives a phenotypic ratio:
A.Of 9:3:3:1
B.Of 1:1
C.Of 2:1
D.Of 3:1
E.That is the same as that for genes that are not linked
48. To inherit an autosomal dominant disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A.The father only, not the mother
B.The mother only, not the father
C.Only the parent who does not exhibit the disease
D.Only the parent having the disease
E.Both parents
49. To inherit an autosomal recessive disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A.The father only, not the mother
B.The mother only, not the father
C.Only the parent who does not exhibit the disease
D.Only the parent having the disease
E.Both parents
50. The "Central Dogma" of biology refers to the flow of:
A.Genetic information in cells from DNA to RNA to protein
B.Genetic information in cells from RNA to DNA
C.Genetic information in cells from protein to RNA
D.Genetic information in cells from atoms to molecules to protein
E.Genetic information in cells from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
51. The type of RNA that carries the information that specifies a protein is:
A.Messenger RNA
B.Transfer RNA
C.Ribosomal RNA
D.MicroRNA
E.Small nuclear RNA
52. The type of RNA that carries each amino acid to the ribosome is:
A.Messenger RNA
B.Transfer RNA
C.Ribosomal RNA
D.MicroRNA
E.Small nuclear RNA
53. The process used by cells to convert the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids is:
A.Transcription
B.Translation
C.Replication
D.Mitosis
E.Meiosis
54. A three base sequence (loop) in tRNA that is complementary to a sequence of three bases in mRNA is:
A.An anticodon
B.A codon
C.A promoter
D.A terminator
E.An amino acid attachment site
55. A tRNA molecule is "bilingual" because it binds to:
A. Amino acids and DNA
B. DNA and mRNA codons
C. Codons of mRNA and amino acids
D. Promoters and amino acids
E. Promoters and terminators
56. A group of genes and other segments of DNA in Bacteria that are controlled together is:
A.A proteome
B.A chromosome
C.A ribosome
D.An operon
E.A replication fork
57. Proteins that initiate transcription in eukaryotes by recognizing sequences within the promoter region of a gene and attracting RNA polymerase are:
A.Repressors
B.Transcription factors
C.Inducers
D.TATA boxes
E.Poly A Tails
58. In a "missense" (nonsynonymous) mutation in an exon:
A.The substitution in the codon does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
B.The substitution in the codon causes a change in the amino acid specified
C.The substitution in the codon causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
D.The codon is changed by the insertion of a nucleotide
E.The codon is changed by the deletion of a nucleotide
59. In a "silent" (synonymous) mutation that occurs in an exon:
A.The substitution in the codon does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
B.The substitution in the codon causes a change in the amino acid specified
C.The substitution in the codon causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
D.The codon is changed by the insertion of a nucleotide
E.The codon is changed by the deletion of a nucleotide
60. A "frameshift" mutation:
A.May be caused by an addition or deletion of any number ofnucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
B.May be caused by a substitution of any number ofnucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
C.Maintains the reading frame of a gene
D.Usually does not hurt a protein's ability to function
E.Can never happen
61. The part of a plant that is the stalk-like support for a leaf is the:
A.Petiole
B.Node
C.Internode
D.Blade
E.Companion cell
62. An embryonic leaf of a plant is a:
A.Petiole
B.Cotyledon
C.Rhizoid
D.Sepal
E.Tracheoid
63. Which of the following is not an edible reproductive part of a plant?
A.Broccoli
B.Tomato
C.Corn
D.Celery
E.Walnut
64. The cells that surround each stoma and control its opening and closing are:
A.Sieve tube cells
B.Vascular cells