Module 1. Clinical pharmacology of drugs affecting the cardiovascular system and the respiratory system. Clinical pharmacology of analgesics and antibacterials. Clinical pharmacology of antiseptics, enzymes and drugs that affect the hard tissues of the tooth

Тext test tasks

  1. Alternative antimicrobial drug(s) for treating penicillin-resistant S. aureus:
  2. vancomycin (Vancocin)
  3. * nafcillin (Nafcil, Unipen)
  4. methicillin (Staphcillin)
  5. All of the above
  6. None of the above
  7. Aminoglycosides antibacterial
  8. hetacillin
  9. aztreonam
  10. * gentamicin (Garamycin)
  11. vancomycin (Vancocin)
  12. Clarithromicin
  13. Antibacterials regarded as generally safe to prescribe in pregnancy.
  14. * erythromycin
  15. cephalosporins
  16. tetracyclines
  17. All of the above
  18. None of the above
  19. Antibiotic: Newborn toxicity due to impaired glucuronidation in infants
  20. * chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
  21. tetracycline (Achromycin)
  22. ampicillin
  23. all
  24. neither
  25. Antibiotic's clearance from the body most likely influenced by severe hepatic disease:
  26. penicillins
  27. clindamycin (Cleocin)
  28. rifampin (Rimactane)
  29. * clindamycin & rifampin
  30. None of the above
  31. Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor--like penicillins:
  32. bacitracin
  33. lincomycin (Lincocin)
  34. * cephalosporin
  35. streptomycin
  36. none of the above
  37. Beta-lactamase inhibitor:
  38. vancomycin (Vancocin)
  39. sulbactam
  40. clavulanate
  41. * vancomycin & clavulanate
  42. none of the above
  43. Cephalosporin effective against pseudomonas infections:
  44. cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
  45. moxalactam
  46. * ceftazidime (Fortax, Taxidime, Tazicef)
  47. cefoxitin & ceftazidime
  48. neither
  49. Cephalosporin: orally effective
  50. cephalothin (Keflin)
  51. Cephalexin
  52. * cefaclor (Ceclor)
  53. cephalothin & cefaclor
  54. none of the above
  55. Combination of metronidazole (Flagyl) and penicillin in treating an abscess caused by beta-lactamase producing Bacteriodes and anaerobic streptococci is an example of:
  56. synergistic drug treatment
  57. antagonistic drug effects
  58. additive drug effects
  59. * none of the above
  60. all of the above
  61. Drug(s) effective in treating typhoid fever:
  62. ampicillin (Principen, Omnipen)
  63. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
  64. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
  65. * all of the above
  66. none of the above
  67. Effective in treating infections due to B. fragilis
  68. cefamandole (Mandol)
  69. * cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
  70. cefadroxil (Duricef, Ultracef)
  71. all of the above
  72. none of the above
  73. FALSE statement about penicillin G
  74. treatment of choice for viridans group streptococcal endocarditis.
  75. * Pen G and Pen V are the two natural penicillins.
  76. Pen G can be combined with procaine, extending drug half-life
  77. Pen G most effective when given orally
  78. None of the above
  79. First generation cephalosporin:
  80. cefamandole (Mandol)
  81. cefaclor (Ceclor) and
  82. cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
  83. * cephalexin (Keflex)
  84. none of the above
  85. Fluoroquinone;effective in treating urinary tract infections (UTI) caused by multidrug resistant strains.
  86. isoniazid (INH)
  87. sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
  88. * ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
  89. streptomycin
  90. none of the above
  91. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis:
  92. streptomycin
  93. vancomycin (Vancocin)
  94. doxycycline (Vibramycin, Doryx)
  95. * gentamicin (Garamycin)
  96. all of the above
  97. Mechanism of action: Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
  98. * protein synthesis inhibitor
  99. bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor
  100. DNA synthesis inhibition
  101. none of the above
  102. all of the above
  103. Mechanism of action: vancomycin (Vancocin):
  104. protein synthesis inhibitor
  105. * cell wall synthesis inhibitor
  106. inhibits folic acid synthesis
  107. none of the above
  108. all of the above
  109. More likely to cause polyneuritis in patients who are"slow acelators"; this antibiotic is inactivated by the liver.
  110. clindamycin (Cleocin)
  111. * isoniazid (INH)
  112. nafcillin (Nafcil, Unipen)
  113. vancomycin (Vancocin)
  114. Flagyl
  115. Properties of tetracycline (Achromycin):
  116. inhibitor of bacterial cell wall synthesis
  117. drug of choice in treating typhus
  118. cleared primarily by the liver
  119. * inhibitor of bacterial cell wall synthesis & drug of choice in treating typhus
  120. none of the above
  121. Safely administered at full doses to patients with renal insufficiency; has antimicrobial activity against gram-positive bacteria.
  122. gentamicin (Garamycin)
  123. * erythromycin
  124. neomycin
  125. penicillin
  126. all of the above
  127. Suitable for treatment of bacterial meningitis caused by H. influenzae:
  128. cefotaxime (Claforan)
  129. cephalexin (Keflex)
  130. cephalothin (Keflin)
  131. * cefadroxil (Duricef, Ultracef)
  132. none of the above
  133. Synergistic antimicrobial combination:
  134. amoxicillin-clavulanate
  135. ampicillin -streptomycin
  136. * sulbactam-ampicillin
  137. All of the above
  138. None of the above
  139. Topical use only:
  140. penicillin
  141. * bacitracin
  142. clindamycin (Cleocin)
  143. ampicillin
  144. none of the above
  145. Unstable at low pH, this antibiotic is structurally similar to penicillin:
  146. streptomycin
  147. * erythromycin
  148. trimethoprim (generic)
  149. rifampin (Rimactane)
  150. all of the above
  151. Which of the following is a short acting leukotriene synthesis (5-lipoxygenase) inhibitor?
  152. * Zileuton
  153. Zafirlukast
  154. Montelukast
  155. Omalizumab
  156. Theophyline
  157. Generation of specific immunity requires antigen-presenting cells, APCs, including:
  158. B lymphocytes
  159. macrophages
  160. Langerhans cells
  161. B lymphocytes & macrophages
  162. * B lymphocytes , macrophages & Langerhans cells
  163. A client is taking famotidine (Pepcid) asks the doctor what would be the best medication to take for a headache. The doctor tells the client that it would be best to take:
  164. * aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA)
  165. ibuprofen (Motrin)
  166. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
  167. naproxen (Naprosyn)
  168. A doctor is caring for a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving sulindac (Clinoril) 150 mg po twice daily. Which finding would indicate to the doctor that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication?
  169. * nausea
  170. photophobia
  171. fever
  172. tingling in the extremities
  173. All of the above
  174. Anti-inflammatory drugs are:
  175. prednisone (Deltasone)
  176. aspirin
  177. naproxen
  178. prednisone & aspirin
  179. * prednisone, aspirin & naproxen
  180. Activated cytotoxic T cells induce target cell death (virus-infected cells) by:
  181. Fas-Fas ligand apotosis pathway
  182. lytic granule enzymes
  183. perforin
  184. * all of the above
  185. None of the above
  186. Adaptive Immune Response(s):
  187. antibody production
  188. lymphocyte activation
  189. destroys proliferating lymphoid cells
  190. * antibody production lymphocyte activation
  191. neither
  192. Agent acts directly to diminish tissue injury:
  193. tacrolimus
  194. cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Neoral)
  195. * prednisone (Deltasone)
  196. dactinomycin (Cosmegen)
  197. All of the above
  198. Alkylating agent; destroys proliferating lymphoid cells; in low doses -- for effective against autoimmune disorders including systemic lupus erythematosus
  199. azathioprine (Imuran)
  200. methotrexate
  201. * cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
  202. antilymphocyte globulin (ALG)
  203. all the above
  204. Analgesic effects of aspirin:
  205. peripheral action (inflammation)
  206. subcortical site of action
  207. decreasing PGE2 synthesis
  208. * all the above
  209. neither
  210. Antilymphocyte antibodies:
  211. binds to the surface of T cells
  212. acts mainly on small, long-lived peripheral lymphocytes
  213. may be used in induction of immunosuppression
  214. may be obtained by hybridoma technique for monoclonal antibody generation
  215. * all of the above
  216. Approximate prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis:
  217. * 1%
  218. 5%
  219. 7%
  220. 10%
  221. 15%
  222. Aspirin and antipyresis:
  223. elevation of body temperature is typically a useful defense mechanism
  224. * aspirin -- best available drug for reducing fever (in the absence of contraindications to its use recurrent
  225. aspirin -- more effective in lowering elevated temperature than normal body temperature
  226. aspirin-induced temperature reduction is caused by vasodilation
  227. fever associated with infection: caused by actions of prostaglandins and interleukin 1 at the periphery
  228. Aspirin may be fatal in taken in sufficient quantity. The syndrome of fatal salicyate overdose in children is characterized by
  229. marked hypotermia secondary to an antipyretic effect
  230. * fever, tinnitus
  231. peripheral oedema
  232. disturbance in acid - base and electrolyte balance
  233. * all of the above
  234. Associated with elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes, which cause tissue damage; complement activation results in anaphylatoxic and chemotactic activities:
  235. * Immediate Hypersensitivity Type III
  236. Immediate Hypersensitivity Type II
  237. Delayed Hypersensitivity
  238. Immediate Hypersensitivity Type I
  239. At low doses required to inhibition of thymidylate synthase, an enhanced adenosine release
  240. chloroquine
  241. gold
  242. * methotrexate
  243. cyclophosphamide
  244. ketorolac
  245. Autoimmune disorder: associated with antibodies made against self DNA, red blood cells, histones, platelets
  246. rheumatoid arthritis
  247. * systemic lupus erythematosus
  248. insulin dependent diabetes
  249. all of the above
  250. neither
  251. Clinical uses of immunosuppressive drugs:
  252. organ transplantation
  253. hemolytic disease of the newborn
  254. autoimmune disorders
  255. *all of the above
  256. neither
  257. Common adverse reactions of corticosteroidal therapy are:
  258. bradycardia, mental dullness
  259. anorexia, polyuria
  260. tachycardia, insomnia
  261. * “moon face”, obese trunk
  262. all of the above
  263. Correct drug-drug interactions:
  264. aspirin -- acetazolamide: enhanced salicylate intoxication
  265. aspirin -- spironolactone: reduced spironolactone activity
  266. *all of the above
  267. aspirin -- phenytoin: increased free phenytoin serum levels
  268. aspirin-alcohol: increased gastrointestinal bleeding
  269. Cytotoxic agents with immunosuppressive properties:
  270. cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
  271. vincristine (Oncovin)
  272. methotrexate
  273. cytarabine (ARA-C)
  274. * all the above
  275. Drug associated with the hepatic/renal toxic metabolite: N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone
  276. diclofenac
  277. meclofenamate
  278. indomethacin
  279. * acetaminophen
  280. aspirin
  281. Drug of choice in treating autoimmune hemolytic anemia:
  282. cyclophosphamide plus factor XIII
  283. Rho(D) immune globulin
  284. * prednisone
  285. OKT3 monoclonal antibody
  286. cyclosporine
  287. Effective in lowering incidents of rejection in infectious complications in transplant patients:
  288. azathioprine (Imuran)
  289. prednisone (Deltasone)
  290. antilymphocyte antibodies
  291. cyclosporine (Sandimmune, Neoral)
  292. * all the above
  293. Effective in managing acute gouty arthritisand ankylosing spondylitis; also accelerates closure of patent ductus arteriosus in premature infants:
  294. gold
  295. ketorolac
  296. phenylbutazone
  297. methotrexate
  298. * indomethacin
  299. Example of first-class of hormonal agents noted to have lipolytic properties:
  300. cyclosporine
  301. * prednisone (Deltasone)
  302. tacrolimus
  303. IFN-alpha
  304. thalidomide
  305. Example of immunostimulatory cytokine that may be useful in cancer immunotherapy
  306. levamisole
  307. BCG
  308. IFN-alpha
  309. * IL-2
  310. none of the above
  311. Examples of autoimmune diseases
  312. rheumatoid arthritis
  313. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
  314. systemic lupus erythematosis
  315. none of the above
  316. * all of the above
  317. For a 6-year-old child with fever, what NSAIDs would be preferred?
  318. aspirin
  319. * acetaminophen
  320. indomethacin
  321. ibuprofen
  322. Glucocorticoid effects:
  323. inhibition of leukotriene production
  324. inhibition of prostaglandins
  325. increased chemotaxis
  326. * inhibition of leukotriene production & inhibition of prostaglandins
  327. all of the above
  328. In rheumatoid arthritis: primary effect of this mediator is on prostaglandin production:
  329. PDGF (platelet-derived growth factor)
  330. GM-CSF
  331. * TNF alpha
  332. all of the above
  333. none of the above
  334. Inhibits antigen recognition of B-cell
  335. prednisone
  336. azathioprine
  337. methotrexate
  338. * Rho(D) immune globulin
  339. tacrolimus
  340. Interferes with cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells;example of the first class of hormonal agents recognized have lympholytic properties:
  341. cyclosporine
  342. tacrolimus
  343. IFN-alpha
  344. * dexamethasone
  345. 15-desoxyspergualin
  346. Isozyme primarily responsible for prostaglandin production by cells involve an inflammation:
  347. COX-I
  348. * COX-II
  349. COX-III
  350. all of the above
  351. none of the above
  352. Mechanism of action: aspirin-platelet effects:
  353. promotes platelet aggregation
  354. activates thromboxane synthesis
  355. decreasing PGE2 synthesis
  356. all of the above
  357. * neither
  358. Mediator most likely to promote pain:
  359. histamine
  360. serotonin
  361. * bradykinin
  362. prostaglandins
  363. leukotrienes
  364. Mediator promoting greatest increase in vascular permeability, associated with acute inflammation:
  365. serotonin
  366. prostaglandins
  367. bradykinin
  368. * leukotrienes
  369. NSAID primarily promoted as an analgesic, not as an anti-inflammatory agent:
  370. piroxicam
  371. ibuprofen
  372. naproxen
  373. * ketorolac
  374. sulindac
  375. Reduces uric acid synthesis: for management of gout
  376. colchicine
  377. probenecid (Benemid)
  378. sulfinpyrazone (Anturane)
  379. * allopurinol (Zyloprim, Purinol)
  380. oxaprozin (Daypro)
  381. Structural analog/antimetabolite: cytotoxic immunosuppressive drug:
  382. vincristine
  383. cyclophosphamide
  384. * azathioprine
  385. All of the above
  386. none of the above
  387. T helper lymphocytes -- regulate each other; this substance produced by TH1cells inhibits TH2 cellular proliferation:
  388. interleukin-2
  389. tumor necrosis factor beta
  390. * interferon-gamma
  391. IL-4
  392. IL-6
  393. The chemotherapeutic agent also used orally for severe forms of arthritis is
  394. 5-fluorouracil (5-FU)
  395. * methotrexate (Mexate)
  396. cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
  397. cisplatin (Platinol)
  398. All of the above
  399. The following is not true about corticosteroids:
  400. have anti-inflammatory activity
  401. highly lipophillic
  402. decrease the quantity and viscosity of mucus secretions
  403. * decrease the synthesis of adrenergic mediators
  404. decrease the transcription of genes coding for pro-inflammatory cytokines
  405. The following is not true about corticosteroids:
  406. have anti-inflammatory activity
  407. highly lipophillic
  408. decrease the quantity and viscosity of mucus secretions
  409. * decrease the synthesis of adrenergic mediators
  410. decrease the transcription of genes coding for pro-inflammatory cytokines
  411. The major role in chronic management of arthritis:
  412. * glucocorticoids
  413. nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs
  414. interferon-gamma
  415. All of the above
  416. None of the above
  417. To the patient with gout the doctor prescribed allopurinol. What pharmacological

property of allopurinol is important in this situation?

  1. * Competitive inhibition of ksantinoxydase
  2. Increasing of evacuation of nitrogen substances
  3. Acceleration of catabolism of pirimidinic nucleotides
  4. Decreasing of reutilization of pirimidinic nucleotides
  5. Increasing of synthesis of nucleic acids
  1. Type 1 immediate hypersensitivity:
  2. due to elevated levels of antigen-antibody complexes
  3. * stems from cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE on blood basophils or tissue mast cells by antigen
  4. follows from formation of antigen- antibody complexes between foreign antigen and IgM or IgG immunoglobulins
  5. tissue damage due to influx of antigen-nonspecific inflammatory cells (macrophages and neutrophils)
  6. All above
  7. Typically associated with B cell proliferation and differentiation into antibody-secreting plasma cells
  8. tumor necrosis factor beta
  9. interferon-gamma
  10. * IL-4 (interleukin 4)
  11. IL-2 (interleukin 2)
  12. all of the above
  13. Useful in management of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura refractory to prednisone
  14. dactinomycin
  15. * vincristine
  16. cyclophosphamide
  17. azathioprine
  18. all of the above
  19. What adverse effects are associated with chronic use of systemic corticosteroids?
  20. Candidosis
  21. * Gastrointestinal complications
  22. Hypotension
  23. Hypoglycemia
  24. all of the above
  25. Which of the following combinations is false?
  26. Rifampin Light-chain proteinurea
  27. Ethambutol M.avium complex
  28. Linezolide MDR mycobacteria
  29. Streptomycine Brucellosis
  30. * Para-amino Salicylic acid (PAS) Optic neuropathy
  31. A child has ingested an unknown substance and has evidence of respiratory depression. This symptom is usually found with poisoning due to:
  32. amphetamines
  33. atropine
  34. mushrooms
  35. kerosene
  36. * opioids
  37. A drug which could help you confirm the patient's ingestion is:
  38. phenylephrine
  39. naloxone
  40. * physostigmine
  41. edrophonium
  42. neostigmine
  43. A good analgesic at subanesthetic doses Anesthetic Partition Minimum Alveolar Coefficient Concentration (MAC)
  44. halothane 2.30 0.75
  45. enflurane 1.80 1.68
  46. * nitrous oxide 0.47 105.00
  47. isoflurane 1.40 1.15
  48. methoxyflurane 12.00 0.16
  49. A man is receiving oral hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 10 mg every 4 hours. He needs to be NPO. What would be the best equivalent Intravenous dose of Dilaudid, administered as a continuous infusion?
  50. 0.1 mg per hour
  51. * 0.5 mg per hour
  52. 1.0 mg per hour
  53. 1.5 mg per hour
  54. 2.5 mg per hour
  55. A patient you follow in clinic has a well-known heroin abuse problem. Drugs which could potentially prevent an abstinence withdrawal syndrome during hospitalization include: methadone, nalbuphine, butorphanol
  56. morphine, nalbuphine, methadone
  57. methadone, nalbuphine
  58. nalbuphine, butorphanol
  59. butorphanol only
  60. * All of the above
  61. A pharmacologic agent which has the potential to cause increased biliary tree pressure is:
  62. * morphine
  63. warfarin
  64. phenytoin
  65. acetazolamide
  66. carbon tetrachloride
  67. Acetaminophen has been used as a safe and effective analgesic/ antipyretic agent for over 80 years. Since it may be purchase without a prescription, it is readily available and as such the recommended dose may be exceeded. The primary toxicity leading to death from an acetaminophen overdose is:
  68. papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis
  69. pancytopenia
  70. * hepatocellular necrosis
  71. myocarditis
  72. hemolytic anemia
  73. Agents used to counter motion sickness which are more effective than cyclizine and meclizine include: dimenhydramine, promethazine, scopolamine, bethanechol
  74. * dimenhydramine,promethazine, scopolamine
  75. dimenhydramine, scopolamine
  76. promethazine, bethanechol
  77. bethanechol only
  78. All of the above
  79. All of the following are common signs of approaching death except:
  80. Decreasing interest in eating
  81. Decreasing recognition of family members
  82. Decreasing urine output
  83. Increasing confusion
  84. * Increasing number of bowel movements
  85. All of the following classes of drugs can demonstrate anticholinergic side effects EXCEPT:
  86. * tricyclic antidepressants
  87. antihistamines
  88. phenothiazines
  89. anticonvulsants
  90. All of the above
  91. All of the following drugs are classified as indirect or mixed acting agents EXCEPT: ephedrine, dopamine, amphetamine, dobutamine
  92. ephedrine,dopamine,amphetamine
  93. ephedrine, amphetamine
  94. dopamine, dobutamine
  95. * amphetamine only
  96. all are correct
  97. All of the following drugs are examples of direct acting beta agonists EXCEPT:
  98. * phenylephrine
  99. metaproterenol
  100. isoetharine
  101. albuterol
  102. terbutaline
  103. All of the following factors influence the rate of induction of anesthesia with an inhaled anesthetic EXCEPT:
  104. aqueous solubility of the anesthetic
  105. * patient history of malignant hyperthermia
  106. ventilation rate
  107. tension of gas administration
  108. pulmonary blood flow rate
  109. All of the following statements are true concerning effects of intravenous infusion of norepinephrine at 10 UG/Min EXCEPT:
  110. * an increase in pulse rate
  111. an increase in pulse pressure
  112. a marked increase in peripheral resistance
  113. an increase in systolic blood pressure
  114. an increase in diastolic blood pressure
  115. All of the following statements concerning catecholamine biosynthesisare true EXCEPT:
  116. * all of the enzymes involved with catecholamine biosynthesis are highly specific for each substance
  117. tyrosine hydroxylase is the rate-limiting enzyme in catecholamine biosynthesis
  118. the level of glucocorticoid influences the concentration of phenyl-n-methyltransferase and hence the conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine
  119. the conversion of tyrosine to dopa and dopa to dopamine occurs in the cytoplasm of the adrenergic nerve terminal
  120. the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine via dopamine beta-hydroxylase tales place within the granule of the adrenergic nerve terminal
  121. All of the following statements concerning physostigmine and neostigmine are true EXCEPT:
  122. physostigmine and neostigmine are classified as reversible cholinesterase inhibitors
  123. neostigmine stimulates nicotinic receptors at ganglia and neuromuscular junctions unlike physostigmine
  124. physostigmine is well absorbed orally
  125. * a major problem encountered with neostigmine is the unpleasant central nervous system effects which result from its administration
  126. physostigmine is a tertiary amine and is able to penetrate the central nervous system
  127. All of the following statements concerning the effects of anticholinesterase agents are true EXCEPT:
  128. when applied topically to the anti-cholinesterase agents cause conjunctival hyperemia, miosis, and constriction of the ciliary muscle
  129. enhancement of gastric contractions and increased secretion of gastric acid from parietal cells
  130. augmentation of secretory function in bronchial, lacrimal, sweat, salivary, gastric, and intestinal glands
  131. * increase the effective refractory period of cardiac muscle and decrease the conduction time in conducting tissue
  132. stimulation followed by depression or paralysis, of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle (nicotinic action)
  133. All of the following statements concerning the structure-activity relationships of sympathomimetic amines are true EXCEPT:
  134. the presence of a hydroxyl group in the 3 and 4 positions on the benzene ring is characteristic of the "catechol" nucleus
  135. resistance to monamine oxidase is conferred by alkyl substitution on the alpha carbon of the phenylethylamine structure
  136. * the presence of hydroxyl groups in the 3 and 5 positions of a benzene ring increases the specificity for beta-1 receptors in the lung
  137. a large alkyl substitution on the amino group of a direct-acting sympathomimetic increases the specificity for beta receptors
  138. the absence of hydroxyl groups of the benzene ring of indirect-acting sympathomimetic amines increases oral effectiveness
  139. All of the following statements regarding acetaminophen toxicity are true EXCEPT:
  140. acetaminophen is the principal metabolic product of phenacetin
  141. an overdose of 10 grams or more may produce hepatic necrosis in adults
  142. acetaminophen overdose may produce transient azotemia or renal failure
  143. * forced diuresis may be a useful form of therapy for acetaminophen overdose
  144. liver pathology is centrilobular and midzonal necrosis
  145. All of the following statements regarding cholinergic blockage are true EXCEPT:
  146. muscarinic actions of all parasympathomimetic drugs are blocked selectively by atropine, through competitive occupation of cholinergic receptors
  147. epinephrine and other sympathomimetic amines antagonize most muscarinic effects at sites where adrenergic and cholinergic impulses produce opposing effects
  148. nicotinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at autonomic ganglia are blocked by hexamethonium
  149. * nicotinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle are antagonized by D-tubocurarine
  150. muscarinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at autonomi ganglia are blocked by hexamethonium
  151. Anesthetic associated with the highest incidence of hepatitis.