Fundamentals of Microbiology and Bioinformatics
Unit – I
Section – A
1. Father of antiseptic surgery is ______
a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur c. Joseph Lister d. Theodore Schwann
2. Who discovered PCR machine?
a. Griffith b. Sanger c. Avery d. Kary Mullis
3. Which of the following bacteria was not discovered by Robert Koch?
a. Bacillus anthracis b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Salmonella typhi d.Vibrio cholera
4. Which of the following scientist first described the usefulness of Azotobacter as a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria?
a. H. Hellriegel b. H. Wilfarth c. Martinus Willem Beijerinick d. Sergei Winogradsky
5. Which of the following scientist first showed mutually beneficial relationship between bacteria and leguminous plants?
a. H. Hellriegel and H. Wilfarth b. Nocard and Roux c. Sergei Winogradsky and Martinus Willem Beijerinck
d. Welch and Nuttall
6. Father of Soil Microbiology is ______
a. H. Hellriegel b. H. Wilfarth c. Martinus willem Beijerinick d. Sergei Winogradsky
7. All of the following scientist got Nobel Prize for their contribution in the field of Microbiology except ______
a. Antony Van Leeuwenhoek b. Elie Metchnikoff c. Paul Ehrlich d. Robert Koch
8. All of the following scientist supported the idea of “spontaneous generation” of animals except ______
a. Aristotle b. Francesco Redi c. John Needham d. Felix Archimede Pouchet
9. Which of the following scientist tried to disprove Spontaneous generation theory by passing airthrough cotton into flasks containing heated broth?
a. Franz Schulze b. H. Schroder and T. Von Dusch c. Lazaro Spallanzani d. Theodor Schwann
10. The epidemic that infected Europe, Middle East and North Africa and killed tens of millions of people was known as theBlack Death. The disease was caused by ______
a. Anthrax b. Breathing of foul air c. Bubonic plague d. Small pox e. Swine flu
11. The event that triggered the development and establishment of microbiology as a science is the ______
a. Development of Microscope b. Germ theroy of disease c. Spontaneous generation
d. Vaccinations
12. Which of the following pioneers of Microbiology is credited with the discovery of microorganisms using high quality magnifying lenses (early microscopes)?
a. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Hooke d. Robert Koch
13. The purpose ofswan-necked flasksthat Louis Pasteur designed to disprove spontaneous generation is to:
a. Allow the multiplication of microbes in the broth
b. Implicate the role of flies in the development of maggots on rotting meat
c. Pasteurize the meat broth
d. Prevent air from entering the flask
e. Trap the microbes and prevent them from reaching the broth
14. The Alpha helical structure ofDNAwas discovered by ______
a. Edward Tatum
b. Eile Metchnikoff
c. James Watson and Francis Crick
d. Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin McLeod
e. Paul Ehrlich
15. The term “vaccine” was coined by ______
a. Robert Koch b. Paul Ehrlich c. Louis Pasteur d. Joseph Lister
16. Who first suggested using the thickening agent most commonly used for colony purification today?
a. Louis Pasteur b. Robert Koch c. Fennie Hessie d. Richard Petri
17. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by ______
a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur c. Lister d. Edward Jenner
18. Transformation mechanism was first described by ______
a. Avery b. Griffith c. Zinder d. Tantum
19. Thermus aquaticus is the source of ______
a. Taq polymerase b. Vent polymerase c. c) both a and b d. primase enzyme
20. Which of the following is a chemical nucleotide sequencing method?
a. Sanger method b. Maxam Gilbert method c) Edmans method d) Automated sequencing method
21. How many different types of chemical treatments are required in Maxam Gilbert method?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
22. The samples in Sanger’s method after reaction are separated using ______
a. AGE b. PAGE c. PFGE d. 2D gel electrophoresis
23. Which of the following is not a DNA sequencing method?
a. LMPCR b. Edman’s method c. Sanger’s method d. MaxamGilbert method
24. “One gene one enzyme” concept was proposed by ______
a. Griffith b. Sanger c. Beadle and Tatum d. Galo
25. Temin and Baltimore independently discovered the enzyme called ______
a. Taq polymerase b. Ligase c. Reverse transcriptase d. amylase
Section – B
26. Write a note on spontaneous generation conflict
27. Write the contributions of Beadle and Tatum, Griffith and Arber Smith.
28. Contribution of Kary Mullis
29. Write a note on contribution of Louis Pasteur
30. Explain about Koch postulates
Section – C
31. Give an account on History of Microbiology
32. Give a detailed account on Pure culture methods
33. Write an account on the contributions of Lederberg and Zinder and Gilbert and Sanger
Unit – II
Section – A
1. Sterilization involves the use of a physical or chemical procedure to ______
a. remove visible soil from surgical instruments
b. destroy non-pathogenic organisms
c. destroy all forms of microbial life including highly resistant bacterial spores
d. destroy all forms of microbial life except highly resistant bacterial spores
2. The most widely used, effective, economical and reliable method of sterilization used in the health care setting is ______
a. gas plasma b. ethylene oxide c. peracetic acid d. steam
3. Ethylene Oxide is a highly toxic agent, which destroys microorganisms by a process called ______
a. cavitation b. oxidation c. osmosis d. alkylation
4. The most frequently used liquid chemical sterilant is ______
a. alcohol b. peracetic acid c. glutaraldehyde d. formaldehyde
5. What percentage of alcohol is used for sterilization process?
a. 90 b. 70 c. 100 d. 40
6. The principle of moist heat sterilization is employed in ______equipment
a. Autoclave b. Hot air oven c. Water bath d. pH meter
7. Temperature in pasteurization is ______
a. 62.8°C b. 35.7°C c. 68.2°C d. 60.8°C
8. Discontinuous heating is called ______
a. Pasteurization b. Sterilization c. Fermentation d. Tindalization
9. Phenol co-efficient indicates ______
a. Efficiency of a disinfectant b. Dilution of a disinfectant c. Purity of a disinfectant d. Quantity of a disinfectant
10. The abbe or paraboloid condenser was used in ______
a. Bright field microscope b. dark field microscope c. Phase contrast microscope d. SEM
11. All the following are components of compound microscope except ______
a. stage clips b. fine adjustment c. electron gun d. Binocular eye piece
12. Resolving power of an instrument can be increased by ______
a. using an illumination of longer wavelength and by decreasing the NA
b. using an illumination of longer wave length and by increasing the NA
c. using an illumination of shorter wave length and by increasing the NA
d. using an illumination of shorter wave length and by decreasing the NA
13. The refractive index of air is ______
a. 0.50 b. 0.75 c. 1.00 d. 1.25
14. The resolving power of unaided human eye is
a. 1 cm b. 100 µm c. 200 nm d. 400 nm
15. Which of the following is best suited to get the surface view of an object?
a. SEM b. TEM c. both a and b d. compound microscope
16. Which of the following is true about dark field microscopy?
a. Adding disc called ‘stop’ to the condenser will make bright field to dark filed
b. The stop disc prevents the entry of light from the central field and object is illuminated with beam of light
c. The light gets reflected from the sides of the specimen and appears bright in dark background
d. all of the above
17. Always begin examining microscope slides with which power objective?
a. high b.low c.100X d.It doesn’t matter which objective
18. What must be done to a specimen to increase the contrast of the structures viewed?
a. illuminated b. stained c. placed under a cover slip d. thinly sliced
19. The field of view of a microscope with a 10X ocular and a 4X objective is 5mm. What is will be the field of view with a 10X objective?
a. 3.14 mm2 b. 20 mm c. 2 mm2 d. 2mm
20. The dye used in fluorescent microscope is ______
a. Fluorescein b. Malachite green c. Methylene blue d. Nigrosin
21. Differential staining of bacteria on Gram staining is due to ______
a. difference in the cell wall layer components of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
b. difference in the cell structure of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
c. difference in the mode of nutrition of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
d. none of the above
22. The iodine used in Gram staining serves as a ______
a. chelator b. catalyst c. mordant d. cofactor
23. Gram staining was developed by ______
a. French microbiologist Louis Pasteur b. Dutch lens maker Leeuwenhoek
c. Danish physician Christian Gram d. Dutch physician Christian Gram
24. The organisms that can be acid fast stained is ______
a. Nocardia b. Tubercle bacilli c. Lepra bacilli d. all of these
25. Which of the following is a primary stain for acid fast staining of mycobacteria?
a. Crystal violet b. Carbol fuchsin c. Geimsa d. Methylene blue
Section – B
26. Write the working principle of phase contrast microscope with a neat diagram
27. Differentiate between simple and differential staining
28. Write in detail about fluorescence microscope
29. Define staining. Write the principle and procedure for nuclear staining with suitable diagram
30. Define sterilization. Write in detail about different types of physical method of sterilization
31. Differentiate between SEM and TEM.
Section – C
32. Define sterilization. Write the various chemicals used for sterilization.
33. Write in detail about principle and procedure of Gram staining.
34. Write the principle and procedure of Acid fast staining and Negative staining.
Unit – III
Section – A
1. How many sections in Bergey’s system of bacterial classification are there?
a. 33 b. 43 c. 23 d. 53
2. The vegetative body of fungus was called as ______
a. Mycelium b. Thallus c. Hypae d. Spores
3. Microorganisms belonging to the same ______would be expected to have the most characteristics in common with each other
a. order b. species c. family d. kingdom e. genus
4. The Cavalier Smith's eight kingdom system of classification includes all of the following except:
a. fungi b. bacteria c. viruses d. algae e. slime molds
5. A unicellular heterotroph with a nucleus but possess 70S ribosomes and lack golgi apparatuses should be placed in which kingdom
a. Fungi b. Eubacteria c.Archezoa d. Chromista e. Animalia
6. Biochemical tests are used to determine ______
a. enzymatic activities b. nucleic acid base composition c. amino acid sequences
d. staining characteristics e. All of the above
7. A(n) _____ classification system arranges organisms into groups whose members share many characteristics and reflects as much as possible the biological nature of organisms.
a. artificial b. natural c. phylogenetic d. molecular e. phonetic
8. The five kingdom arrangements of organisms was proposed by ______
a. Whittakar b. John Ray c. Whitter d. Cavalier Smith\
9. Which of the following definitions covers a greater
number of organisms?
a. Class b. Genus c. Order d. Family
10. Basic taxonomy unit is ______
a. Kingdom b. Genus c. Species d. Order
11. An example for the artificial system of classification
a. Bentham and Hooker b. Linnaeus system c. Engler and Prantl d. Hutichson
12. First step in taxonomy ______
a. Naming b. Description c. Identification d. classification
13. What is the correct descending sequence of taxonomic categories?
a. Division – class – order – family – tribe – genus
b. Class – order – division – family – species – tribe
c. tribe – genus – class – division – family – order
d. Family – order – genus – order – division – class
14. Modern classification is based on ______
a. Physiology b. Fossils c. Phylogeny d. Morphology
15. ‘System naturae’ was written by ______
a. Linneaus b. Charles Darwin c. Aristole d. Wallace
16. The genera Bacillus and Lactobacillus are gram-negative rods and are not in the same family. This
indicates that which one of the following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a taxon?
a. Biochemical characteristics b. DNA sequencing c. DNA:DNA hybridization analysis
d. Morphological characteristics e. Fatty acid profiles
17. The "bible" of bacterial taxonomy is ______
a. the American Society for Microbiology b. the National Type Culture Collection
c. the American Type Culture Collection d. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
18. Western blotting detects specific bacterial proteins by ______
a. their reactions with specific antibodies b. their hybridization with a labeled DNA probe
c. biochemical tests d. their reactions with specific dyes
e. their reactions with specific bacteriophages
19. 16S ribosomal RNA sequencing is used to determine the phylogenetic relationships between
bacteria for all of the following reasons except ______
a. All cells contain rRNA
b. Closely related species have fewer differences than distantly related species
c. rRNA genes are highly conserved compared to other DNA sequences
d. rRNA doesn't require culturing the organism
e. Only Eubacteria have 16S rRNA genes
20. The archaea _____ make methane from acetate or hydrogen gas and carbon dioxide
a. Methanogens b. Sulfate reducing bacteria c. Nitrifiers d. Denitrifiers e. Enterics
21. Which of the following groups has cell wall
a. Bacteria, plant and animals b. Bacteria, fungi and plants
c. Bacteria, fungi, plants and animals d. Bacteria and plants only
22. Bacterial cell wall is made up of ______
a. N-acetyl glucosamine b) N-acetyl muramic acid c) Both a and b
d) N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids
23. Which of the following organelle is involved in cell wall synthesis ______
a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast c. Golgi apparatus d. lysosome
24. All fungi are ______
a. autrophs b. Saprophytes c. Parasites d. Heterotrophs
25. “Perfect stage” of a fungus means
a. When the fungus is perfectly healthy b. When it reproduces asexually
c. When it forms perfect sexual spores d. None of these
Section – B
26. Give an account on the principles of serological and molecular methods of bacterial taxonomy