First Term Unified Quiz #2

First Term Unified Quiz #2

April 14, 2003

HISTOLOGY

1. Testosterone is produced by:

A.  Sertoli Cells

B.  Type A Spermatogonia

C.  Type B Spermatogonia

D.  Spermatids

E.  Interstitial cells of Leydig

2. The proximal tubules of the kidney:

A.  Exhibit numerous microvilli at the cell surface

B.  Are composed of simple squamous epithelium

C.  Secrete glucose and amino acids into the glomerular filtrate

D.  Lack a basal lamina

E.  Are continuous with collecting ducts

3. Sebaceous glands:

A.  Are found primarily in thick skin

B.  Are holocrine glands

C.  Secrete fluid composed primarily of protein and water

D.  Are located in the stratum germanitivum

E.  Have all of the above features

4. Surfactant:

A.  is a component of the basement membrane of the alveolar epithelium

B.  Is produced by alveolar macrophages

C.  Coats the nasal epithelium

D.  Is produced by Type I pneumocytes

E.  Decreases the surface tension at the epithelial-air surface

5. The marginal zone of the spleen is:

A.  Located in the PALS

B.  Located in the capsule

C.  A site where immune reactions occur

D.  Avascular

E.  Rich in adipose tissue

6. The bloods vessels that respond to the reduction of withdrawal of progesterone, and that supply the functional layer of the endometrium are:

A.  Spiral arteries

B.  Straight arteries

C.  Arcuate arteries

D.  High endothelial venules (HEVs)

E.  The uterine artery

7. The zona pellucida is a site within developing ovarian follicles. The zona pellucida:

A.  stains dark blue with H&E stain

B.  Is present in primordial follicles

C.  Is produced by cells of the theca externa

D.  Facilitates contact between the oocyte and follicle cells

E.  Lies within the tunica albuginea

8. Hormones classified as glucocorticoids (like cortisol) are produced in the adrenal cortex in a layer called the:

A.  Glomerulosa

B.  Fasciculata

C.  Reticularis

D.  Chromaffin

E.  Medulla

9. The cells that produce the hormone called calcitonin are:

A.  Principle or follicle cells of the thyroid gland

B.  Principle or follicle cells of the parathyroid gland

C.  Parafollicular or “clear” cells of the thyroid

D.  Oxyphil cells of the parathyroid

E.  Pinealocytes

10. The epithelial reticular cells (ERCs) contribute to several important functions in the immune system. They are located only in the:

A.  Palatine tonsil

B.  Lymph nodules

C.  Lymph nodes

D.  Lymphatic vessels

E.  Thymus

EMBRYOLOGY QUESTIONS

11. Which of the following statements about the auditory ossicles is true? They

A.  Develop by intramembranous ossification

B.  Are derived from the Meckel’s cartilage

C.  Are derived from the Reichert’s cartilage

D.  Are derived from both the Meckel’s cartilage and Reichert’s cartilage

E.  Form a part of the neurocranium

12. Regarding the metopic suture

A.  it is located between the frontal and parietal bones

B.  it is located between the two halves of the frontal bone

C.  it is seen only in the fetal skull

D.  it can normal be seen in the adult skull

E.  All of the above are true

13. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A.  clavicle/intramembranous ossification

B.  oxycephaly/premature fusion of sagittal suture

C.  muscles of facial expression/first branchial arch

D.  third branchial arch/mandibular nerve

E.  osteoclasts/bone forming cells

14. The mesonephric duct gives rise to

A.  musculature and connective tissue of the trigone of the bladder

B.  the canal of Epididymis

C.  vas (ductus) deferens

D.  ejaculatory duct

E.  all of the above

15. The primordial germ cells in the gonads are derived from:

A.  surface Mesothelium over the gonadal swelling

B.  intermediate mesoderm

C.  yolk sac endoderm

D.  mesonephros

E.  yolk stalk

16. A 19 year old male comes to the clinic with a painless cystic swelling on the right side of the neck at the anterior border of the sternomastoid. The condition is diagnosed as branchial cyst. The branchial cyst results due to failure of:

A.  development of the second branchial arch

B.  development of second branchial pouch

C.  closure of second branchial groove

D.  obliteration of cervical sinus

E.  formation of cervical sinus

17. Which of the following participates in the development of tongue?

A.  copula

B.  tuberculum impar

C.  caudal part of hypobranchial eminence

D.  second branchial arch

E.  occipital Myotomes

18. A part of the gubernaculums is represented in the adult female by the:

A.  broad ligament of the uterus

B.  hymen

C.  suspensory ligament of the ovary

D.  ovarian ligament

E.  mesosalpinx

19. The intermaxillary segment is formed by the fusion of:

A.  maxillary prominences

B.  medial nasal prominences

C.  lateral nasal prominences

D.  medial and lateral nasal prominences

E.  maxillary and lateral nasal prominences

20. Treacher Collins syndrome results due to a defective development of:

A.  ultimobranchial body

B.  third and fourth branchial pouches

C.  first branchial arches

D.  third branchial arch

E.  fourth branchial arch

GROSS ANATOMY

21. Muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg receive most of their arterial blood supply directly from branches of the ______artery.

A.  popliteal

B.  anterior tibial

C.  posterior tibial

D.  fibular (peroneal)

E.  dorsalis pedis

22. Paralysis of the tibialis posterior muscle will results in a weakness in:

A.  extension of the toes

B.  flexion of the toes

C.  dorsiflexion of the foot

D.  eversion of the foot

E.  inversion of the foot

23. Which of the following statements concerning penile erection and ejaculation is/are correct?

A.  the terminal branches of the internal pudendal arteries provide the main arterial supply of the erectile tissues of the penis

B.  increased parasympathetic activity during sexual arousal increases blood volume in the erectile tissues of the penis

C.  penile erection occurs as a consequence of the engorgement of the cavernous sinuses in the corpora cavernosa of the penis

D.  secretions from the seminal vesicles and prostate gland contribute to the composition of semen during emission

E.  All of the above are correct

24. The femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein:

A.  as it passes through the cribriform fascia of the thigh

B.  immediately deep to the sartorius muscle

C.  as it joins the deep femoral vein in the femoral triangle

D.  as it passes deep to the inguinal ligament

E.  at the adductor hiatus of the adductor magnus muscle

25. In its normal placement with the pelvic cavity, the uterus lies in a ______position.

A.  prolapses

B.  anteverted – retroflexed

C.  retroverted – anteflexed

D.  retroverted – retroflexed

E.  anteverted – anteflexed

26. The glans clitoris:

A.  sends most of its lymphatic drainage into inguinal lymph nodes

B.  does not have a homologue in the male

C.  is the distal continuation of the corpora cavernosa

D.  receives sensory innervation from branches of the genitofemoral nerve

E.  is correctly described in all of the above

27. The biceps femoris muscle:

A.  Inserts on the fibula

B.  Acts in flexion of the thigh

C.  Is innervated by the femoral nerve

D.  Forms one boundary of the femoral triangle

E.  Is correctly described in all of the above

28. The pain and itching from a mosquito bite in the skin overlying the belly of the rectus femoris muscle is carried toward the CNS by branches of the ______nerve.

A.  femoral

B.  sural

C.  lateral femoral cutaneous

D.  posterior femoral cutaneous

E.  saphenous

29. The muscle forming the lateral border of the carotid triangle receives its motor innervation from the branches of the ______nerve.

A.  hypoglossal

B.  trigeminal

C.  ansa cervicalis

D.  spinal accessory

E.  vagus

30. Forming a portion of the viscerocranium is the ______bone.

A.  hyoid

B.  ethmoid

C.  vomer

D.  sphenoid

E.  frontal

BIOCHEMISTRY

31. A researcher produces a “knock-out” mouse in which both copies of the gene for PI 3 kinase (Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase) are disrupted. Which of the following processes will be most affected?

A.  Release of Ca2+ from liver ER in response to glucagons

B.  Synthesis of sphingomyelin in regenerating nerve

C.  Inhibition of glycogen synthase kinase in response to insulin

D.  Activation of membrane associated phospholipase C

E.  Activation of hormone-sensitive lipase in adiposities

32. Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutation in the gene for a protein which has been named CFTR. Which of the following proteins shows the greatest sequence homology to CFTR?

A.  Glycophorin

B.  Multi-Drug-Resistance Protein

C.  Glucose transporter GLUT-2

D.  The protein which is deficient in Tay-Sachs disease

E.  Apolipoprotein E

33. Carnitine is involved:

A.  in transporting short chain fatty acids into the mitochondrial matrix

B.  in transporting fatty acids into the ER, where they can undergo desaturation

C.  in the conversion of acetyl-CoA to ketone bodies

D.  in transporting long chain acyl groups into the mitochondrial matrix

E.  the allosteric regulation of acetyl-CoA Dehydrogenase

34. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is associated with elevated serum triacyglycerol (TAG) levels?

A.  Lipoprotein lipase

B.  Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase

C.  Pancreatic lipase

D.  Fatty acid synthase

E.  Phosphatidate phosphohydrolase

35. A 40 year old man made a good recovery following a myocardial infarction. Lovastatin was prescribed by his cardiologist. Which of the following will be a result of his therapy?

A.  Reduced plasma HDL levels

B.  Elevated plasma cholesterol levels

C.  Excessive bile secretion

D.  Reduced plasma LDL levels

E.  Reduced hepatic TAG synthesis

36. Which of the following statements concerning the B-form of DNA is FALSE?

A.  The two DNA chains run in opposite directions

B.  G on one strand makes 3 hydrogen bonds with an A on the other strand

C.  The double-helix makes one complete turn every 10 nucleotides

D.  Most of the DNA found naturally in cells exist in the B-form

E.  Nucleotides in the individual chains are joined by 3’,5’-phosphodiester linkages

37. Which of the following proteins or activities is responsible for removal of RNA primers during DNA replication in E.Coli?

A.  DNA gyrase

B.  3’--->5’ exonuclease of Pol I

C.  5’--->3’ exonuclease of Pol I

D.  telomerase

E.  rep protein

38. Which of the following statements concerning transcription is TRUE?

A.  RNA polymerases require an RNA primer in order to function

B.  Sigma factor is required for termination of transcription in prokaryotes

C.  Three RNA polymerases are involved in transcription in eukaryotes

D.  In prokaryotes transcription starts at the Shine-Dalgarno sequence

E.  Removal of introns from the primary transcript occurs in prokaryotes

39. Which of the following statements concerning the genetic code is FALSE?

A.  it is an overlapping code

B.  it is a degenerate code

C.  it uses no punctuation except for stop and start signals

D.  It is a triplet code

E.  61 codons code for amino acids

40. The toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the cause of diphtheria, interferes with translation by its effect on which of the following protein factors?

A.  EF-Tu

B.  RF-2

C.  IF-2

D.  Rho factor

E.  EF-2

ANSWER KEY

Histology

1. E

2. A

3. B

4. E

5. C

6. A

7. D

8. B

9. C

10. E

Embryology

11. D

12. B

13. A

14. E

15. C

16. D

17. E

18. D

19. B

20. C

Anatomy

21. B

22. E

23. E

24. D

25. E

26. A

27. A

28. A

29. D

30. C

Biochemistry

31. C

32. B

33. D

34. A

35. D

36. B

37. C

38. C

39. A

40. E