Otázky Zpatologické Fyziologie 2. Ročníku Fyzioterapie (Zahraniční Studenti) Kudělení

Otázky zpatologické fyziologie 2. ročníku Fyzioterapie (zahraniční studenti) kudělení klasifikovaného zápočtu.

The Test allow students to comprehensively and conveniently assess and review their knowledge of a particular basic science, in this instance Pathophysiology. Each question is accompanied by four answers and only one answer is correct.

The major immunoglobulin class in normal adult human serum:
The predominant antibody found in a primary immune response
Found on the surface of mast cells
A major component of mucosal secretions
Can cross the placenta
Which of the following cells are important in an innate immune response to extracellular bakteria?
Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages?
Compared with a healthy individual, lymph nodes from a patient with a deficienty in B cells would have
A newborn infected with group B streptococci would produce and secrete antibody of which of the following class[es]?
Eosinophils are associated with the defense against infections caused by
To determine whether a fetus acquired an infection in utero, antigen-specific antibody of which of the following class should be measured?
During an immune response, antibodies are made against different structures [usually proteins] on an infectious agent. These structures are referred to as
Enhances phagocytosis of bakteria by opsonization
Mediates cytolysis
Binds to antibody to activate the classical pathway
A patient with a predisposition for infections Neisseria bacteria may have a deficiency in
Which of the following complement component deficiencies is associated with individuals with frequent pyogenic bacterial infections?
A person with an abnormality in which of the following early complement components would most likely have the most serious clinical manifestations?
Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 is produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus and is thought to be responsible for the clinical manifestations of disease by this organism. This toxin is referred to as a superantigen because it can
Antiviral activity of antibody includes all of the following EXCEPT
During the course of an immune response to microbes, macrophages can cause damage to adjacent tissue by the release of all of the following EXCEPT
Goodpasture`s syndrome
Serum sickness associated with the condition described
Tuberculin reaction associated with the condition described
Poison ivy associated with the condition described
Anaphylactic reaction after bee sting associated with the condition described
Hemolytic disease of the newborn associated with the condition described
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis associated with the condition described
A patient with recurrent yeast infections and the incapacity to control viral infections may indicate a deficiency in
The cytokine that best fits the activity or function - promotes the proliferation of T and B lymphocytes – listed
The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – promotes various biologic actions associated with inflammation – listed
The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – activates macrophages and NK [natural killer] – listed
For the mediator of acute inflammation participate is true
Inflammation is associated with systemic signs and symptoms EXCEPT:
For the T-Cell disorders (DiGeorge Syndrome) is typical
IgA deficiency is a disorder in:
Passive immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?
Active immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?
We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type I (Atopic, Anaphylactic)?
We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type II (Cytotoxic, Cytolytic)?
We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type III (Immune complex)?
We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type IV (Delayed Hypersensitivity)?
If a person with blood group type A receives (by error) blood group type B, the resulting signs and symptoms include
Acute bacterial infections of the bone characteristically show all of the following EXCEPT
Infective endocarditis frequently occurs in injection drug users. The valve most often involved is
The pathogenesis of bacterial diarrhea involves all of the following EXCEPT
The endogenous mediators of sepsis include all of the following EXCEPT
The principal CD lymphocyte affected in HIV and AIDS is
The destruction of CD4 lymphocytes in HIV and AIDS involves all of the following EXCEPT
Typically HIV progresses from the onset of infection to evidence of immunosuppression over what period of time?
A patient who has the autosomal dominant gene for type I osteogenesis imperfecta has blue scleras and slightly reduced height, whereas his brother has multiple fractures and deformities. This is an example of
Your patient has an autosomal dominantly inherited disease. The patient and his grandfather show evidence of disease, but the patient`s father is asymptomatic. This is an example of
Two patients have the same eye color. They have the same
Cystic fibrosis
Which of the following conditions is known to be multifactorial in etiology and not due to a single gene disorder?
In the case of a dominant allele
All are true of human chromosomes EXCEPT
All are true of Down`s syndrome EXCEPT
Most children with Down`s syndrome are
Regarding life expectancy in Down`s syndrome
All are true of phenylketonuria [PKU] EXCEPT
The neurologic deficits of phenylketonuria [PKU] are due to
The different genetic forms of phenylketonuria [PKU] illustrate two different pathophysiologic mechanisms by which inborn errors of metabolism cause disease. These are
Sickle cell anemia
Cell as a part of a multicellular organism, needs to communicate with one another. Coordination of growth, cell division, and the functions of various tissues and organic systems are accomplished by principal means of communication EXCEPT
We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the PROPHASE?
We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the METAPHASE?
We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the ANAPHASE?
We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the TELOPHASE?
We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the CYTOKINESIS?
Which of those sentences is correct?
Which of those sentences is correct?
Which of those sentences is correct?
Necrotic cells demonstrate typical changes EXCEPT
Apoptosis
Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent during which of the following stages of human evolution?
Chromosomal analysis reveals a 47, XYY karyotype. Which of the following descriptions best fits this abnormality?
Metabolic disease may include all of the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT
Initial tests that may help to diagnose an inborn error of metabolism include all the following EXCEPT
During endocytosis, low-density lipoprotein [LDL] is dissociated from its receptor in the:
Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome
Individuals with Turner syndrome
For the malignant tumors fit following characteristics EXCEPT
Hyaline cartilage, which is the most common form of cartilage
In long bone development, hypertrophied chondrocytes are the source of:
Patients with Cushing`s syndrome often show osteoporotic changes. Which of the following characteristic is involved in the etiology of osteoporosis induced by Cushing`s syndrome?
What is the length of the sarcomere?
Which of the following statements is true for the cardiac muscle?
The cells responsible for the entry of human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] into the CNS are:
Regeneration of axons
The blood cell that is a precursor to microglia, Kupffer cells, and Langerhans cells is:
Distribution of blood to specific organs is regulated predominantly by:
Atherosclerosis is usually initiated by:
Which of the following is found in the plasma:
In the human fetus, the predominant site of hematopoiesis during gestational months 5 to 9 is the:
Anaphylactic shock is primarily due to the action of:
The bronchioles do not collapse during exhalation because they are:
Asthma is a consequence of the release of histamine and heparin from:
Which of the following occurs after exposure to ultraviolet [UV] radiation?
Decreased cytocrine secretion of melanin
A 42-year-old man has generalized lymphadenopathy, without fever or night sweats. His total white blood cell [WBC] count is elevated to 50,000, with small mature-appearing lymphocytes. A diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL] is ascertained. All of the following are typical characteristics of CLL EXCEPT
The etiology of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL] is
Which of the following factors complexes with factor VIII, which is activated to factors VIIIa when released from the complex?
Which of the following factors is/are dependent on vitamin K for synthesis?
Which of the following causes of anemia is NOT associated with larger than normal red cells [macrocytosis]?
Which of the following causes of an elevated hemoglobin concentration in the blood is characterized by a LOW level of erythropoietin in the blood?
Which of the following causes of an increase in the neutrophil count in the blood is NOT associated with an absolute increase in the number of circulating polymorphonuclear neutrophil leukocytes?
In a typical case of iron deficiency, which of the following molecular forms that contains or can bind to iron, increases in the patient`s serum?
Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement pertaining to pernicious anemia?
Which of the following statements related to circulating erythrocytes [red cells] is untrue?
Which of the following statements concerning the relationship of the neutrophil polymorphonuclear leukocyte [PMN] to infection with bacterial pathogens is incorrect?
For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:
For the question “If the item is associated with chronic myelocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:
For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia and with chronic myelocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:
Thrombocytopenia is most commonly produced by processes that reduce the survival of circulating platelets significantly below the normal average life span of 10 days. Which of the following statements about thrombocytopenia is true?
Acceleration of the destruction of platelets is owing to
Which of the following factors is not contributing to abnormal clotting in blood vessels [thrombosis]?
In the adult, the best place to sample for cells of this lineage would be
The granules that develop during differentiation of this cell type contain:
Human blood, if fresh, centrifuged in the presence of an anticoagulant such as heparin to obtain a hematocrit, the resulting fractions are:
Thrombocytopenia is a reduction in the number of circulating blood platelets. Which of the following would most likely occur in thrombocytopenia?
Erythrocytes may have abnormal shapes and sizes in certain diseases. In iron deficiency you would expect to see:
After loss or damage to the endothelium of a blood vessel, platelets carry out one of the following functions. Which one is it?
Cells that increase in number during an allergic reaction are:
Specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:
Non-specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:
Major component of pus is
Structure and granular content similar to that of mast cells is typical for
End product of protein catabolism in the blood is
End product of red blood cell destruction in the blood is
All of the following are typical waste products in the blood EXCEPT
Anemia is defined
All of the following are typical characteristic for aplastic anemia EXCEPT
Laboratory features for the anemia resulting from a deficiency of either B12 or folates are NOT:
Which of the following sentences is correct?
Sickle cell anemia
Acute blood loss anemia may present after trauma
For the pernicious anemia is valid:
For the iron deficiency anemia is valid
For the relative polycythemia is valid
For the absolute polycythemia vera is valid
For the secondary polycythemia is valid
Blood smear in folate deficiency anemia is:
Blood smear in relative polycythemia is:
Jaundice it is the typical symptom during
In the case of Hematochezia or melena excreta contains blood in
In the case of Hematemesis excreta contains blood in
All of the following are the causes of the coagulation disorders with prolonged bleeding from nasal or oral mucosa, deep tissue hematomas, spontaneous hematuria EXCEPT
Rh incompatibility
All of the following are etiology and pathogenesis of an insufficient quantity of platelets (fewer than 50,000/mm2) EXCEPT
Which one of the following ECG components varies with heart rate?
Which of the following cardiac parameters does not increase during pregnancy?
Which of the following does NOT occur during diastole?
Which of the following is NOT a component of cardiac output?
For the complex or wave form on the ECG tracing to be accepted
A normal frontal plane QRS axis is
Which of the following associations is correct?
For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following description: A normal individual whose stroke volume increases as preload increases is curve
For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following description: A patient in congestive heart failure due to systolic dysfunction is curve
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral valve opens
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral wave closes
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic valve opens
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic valve closes
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Influx of sodium ions
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: May involve chloride ion movement
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Rapid potassium exit
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Resting state
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following action potential in a normal ventricle: Mediated via slow calcium channels
Which of the following arterial pulse waveforms is consistent with severe left ventricular impairment?
Which of the following arteriole pulse waveforms is consistent with aortic stenosis?
Which of the following conditions is NOT consistent with a hypokinetic arterial pulse?
Which of the following statements is FALSE of a reversed splitting of the first heart sounds?
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The first heart sound – S1:
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The second heart sound – S2:
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The third heart sound – S3:
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The fourth heart sound – S4:
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: Opening snap:
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: Midsystolic click:
The onset of the QRS complex on surface ACG corresponds to which action potential phase?
The isoelectric ST segment on surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase?
The T wave on the surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase?
Which is present when no atrial impulse conducts to the ventricles?
Which ot he following AV blocks is characterized by progressive PR interval prolongation prior to loss of AV conduction?
Which of the following is NOT true regarding left ventricular ejection fraction?
Which of the following is the correct sequence for myocardial depolarization?
Which ECG leads represent the inferior cardiac wall?
Which of the following produces a diastolic murmur?
Loss of P waves on surface ECG is consistent with
Cardiac output is the product of
Which of the following is NOT true regarding right ventricular hypertrophy?
All of the following are risk factors commonly associated with thrombosis EXCEPT
All of the following are risk factors commonly associated with atherosclerosis EXCEPT
Substances that don’t increase blood pressure are
Effects of high systemic blood pressure are
Secondary hypertension refers to high blood pressure of known causes EXCEPT
Left-sided heart failure
Right-sided heart failure
Activation of sympathetic nervous system in the heard
Systemic congestion during right ventricular failure is due to
Pulmonary congestion during left ventricular failure is due to
All of the following are features of primary pulmonary hypertension. EXCEPT one.
The following are common causes of transudative pleural effusion EXCEPT
Obstructive airway defect is characterized on pulmonary function testing by
Which of the following is NOT a cause of bronchiectasis?
Which is NOT the risk factor for pulmonary thromboembolism?
Risk factors for the development of obstructive sleep apnea does NOT include
The causes of hemoptysis include all of the following EXCEPT
The bronchioles do not collapse during exhalation because they are
The smallest active functional unit (including conduction and air exchange) of the lungs is
The lung cells known as “congestive heart failure cells” are:
Surfactant is accurately described by which of the following statements?
Asthma is a consequence of the release of histamine and heparin from
Emphysema is a common occurrence in persons deficient in alpha1-antitrypsin and in those who smoke. Which of the following may occur in emphysema?
The changes in the respiratory system during aging process include all of the following EXCEPT
Which of the following definitions of lung volume is correct?
Which of the following definitions of lung capacities is correct?
Perfusion in the pulmonary
Factor shifting oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left is
Factor shifting oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right is
Hypoventilation
Hyperventilation
Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when
Circulatory hypoxia occurs when
Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when
Anemic hypoxia occurs when
All of the following are causes of acute respiratory failure in neuromuscular diseases EXCEPT
All of the following are causes of acute respiratory failure in pulmonary parenchyma diseases EXCEPT
The pathophysiologic mechanism of pulmonary hypertension includes
All of the following are factors predisposing to pulmonary embolism ECXEPT
Asthma is defined as a lung disease characterized by
The functional assessment of the pulmonary function and signs are: VC (vital capacity) decreased, FEV1 fall to the 60%, respiratory rate increased, pulse/min normal and/or increased and/or decreased, breathlessness at rest.