BOOK: Operations II SECTION: EMS Practice Test-60 questions (CHIEF) OCFD.com
SOPs NOT COVERED: All ADN, TRG/001, TRG/008, and OPS/004
1.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/012), how often does EMSA go to hospitals to retrieve equipment?
- Every day
- The next day
- Every 2 to 3 days
- Once a week
2.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/007), with who should any delay in patient care be discussed?
- The Incident Commander
- The highest medically trained OCFD employee on scene
- The lead paramedic for the transport agency
- EMS QA Officer
3.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), what is the course length for initial AED certification?
- 2 hours
- 4 hours
- 8 hours
- 16 hours
4.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/002), which of the following are responsibilities of First Responders at emergency scenes?
- Scene control
- Orderly transfer of patient care
- A & B
- None of the above
5.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/007), in regards to scene control, when does a Company Officer assume command of a scene?
- When a safety hazard exists
- When patient and responders are in no danger
- When crew is down to minimum staffing
- When the incident is mutual aid with a transport agency other than EMSA
6.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/010), what is the minimum required CPR training for all suppression personnel?
- CPR for Responders Certification
- Heartsaver Certification
- AHA Healthcare Provider Certification
- AHA Standard CPR and First Aid Certification
7.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/006), which of the following is a requirement for EMT Paramedic instructors that is not required of EMT Basic instructors?
- CPR Instructor
- Complete OCFD EMS Instructor course
- Current ACLS status
- OSU-FST Instructor I or II, or equivalent
8.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/006), who has the primary responsibility and authority on crime scenes?
- OCFD Incident Commander
- PD
- Medical Examiner
- Medical Director
9. According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/003), who approves EMS education at the station level?
- Station Officer
- District Officer
- EMS Office
- Chief of Support Services
10.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/009), how are modifications to Defib protocols introduced?
- During the monthly defib inservice training
- During the quarterly defib inservice training
- During the yearly defib inservice training
- By OCFD email
11.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/001), who certifies OCFD as a First Responder Agency?
- Medical Director
- Medical Control Board
- Oklahoma State Department of Health-EMS Division
- City of Oklahoma City
12.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/010), when does OCFD offer CPR courses to the public?
- Every first and third Saturday from 0900-1100
- Every second and third Saturday from 0900-1100
- Every first and third Monday from 0900-1100
- Every second and third Tuesday from 0900-1100
13.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), which of the following is a renewal requirement for EMT Paramedic level?
- 36 hour refresher
- 48 hour refresher
- 56 hour refresher
- 72 hour refresher
14.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/010), which of the following are CPR programs offered by OCFD to the public?
- Heartsaver CPR
- Heart Smart CPR
- Friends & Family CPR
- A & B
15.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/006), who is the course administrator for all EMS courses?
- Primary Instructor
- EMSOfficer
- Chief of Support Services
- Training Officer
16.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/005), how is information obtained by EMSA forwarded to the company responding?
- The information is received by OCFD dispatch link computer, then forwarded to company
- The information is relayed directly to company by EMSA, over the radio
- The information is relayed to dispatch on a dedicated radio frequency, then forwarded to company
- The information is sent via ambulance encoder to the company’s MDT
17.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/011), when are EMS equipment and supplies inventoried?
- 1st of each month
- 5th of each month
- 15th of each month
- Last day of each month
18. According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), how many continuing education hours are required of an EMT Paramedic for renewal?
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 36 hours
- 48 hours
19.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/005), how long after an EMT license expires does the employee have before having to complete full initial training (i.e.-only a EMT refresher course and written/practical exam for recertification)?
- Within 6 months of expiration
- Within 9 months of expiration
- Within 1 year of expiration
- Within 2 years of expiration
20.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), all EMS incidents require what FIRINC menu selections to be completed?
- 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7
- 1, 2, 3, 5, and 7
- 2, 3, 5, and 7
- 1, 2, 5, and 7
21.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/009), defibrillator training is offered to which of the following OCFD personnel?
- Active First Responders
- Active EMT Basics
- Active EMT Paramedics
- All of the above
22.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/005), at what time is dispatch link printer paper removed by dispatchers?
- 2200 hours
- 2300 hours
- 0000 hours
- 0200 hours
23.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/006), in regards to EMS courses taught by instructors, who is responsible for completing the course roster and documentation?
- Primary Instructor
- Secondary Instructor
- Practical Skills Assistant
- EMS Officer
24.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), what section of an incident report should contain any significant info about the incident important to the overall incident, such as safety information, patient access difficulty, or unusual events?
- Section 2
- Section 3
- Section 5
- Section 7
25.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), how many continuing education hours are required of an EMT Intermediate for renewal
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 36 hours
- 48 hours
26.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/006), when do "pre-course" conferences for instructors occur?
- Within 1-2 days of the first day of class
- Within 2-3 days of the first day of class
- Within 1-2 weeks of the first day of class
- Within 2-3 weeks of the first day of class
27.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), how many hours is the EMT Basic refresher?
- 8 hour refresher
- 12 hour refresher
- 24 hour refresher
- 36 hour refresher
28.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/012), if OCFD equipment found, it is delivered to the EMSA service center which is located at what address?
- 2323 S. Walker
- 3434 W. Reno Ave
- N.W. 10th and Dewey
- 1 N. Park Ave.
29.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/002), at what minimum level must all OCFD personnel be trained to be deemed a First Responder Agency?
- First Responder Level
- EMT Basic Level
- EMT Intermediate Level
- First Provider Level
30.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/012), if the hospital is within a company's response district, when should OCFD EMS equipment used on patients retrieved?
- Immediately
- 1 to 2 hours later
- 3 to 4 hours later
- 4 to 6 hours later
31.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/002), who must approve an OCFD employee to function above the BLS level?
- Medical Control Board
- OSDH-EMS Division
- Transport Agency
- A & B
32.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/005), to whom does dispatch turn in the daily dispatch link paper?
- EMSOfficer
- Chief of Support Services
- District Officer
- EMS QA Officer
33.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/006), within what minimum time frame will instructors be notified that they will be teaching an EMS course?
- Within 1 week of the first day of the class
- Within 2 weeks of the first day of the class
- Within 3 weeks of the first day of the class
- Within 1 month of the first day of the class
34.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/013), which of the following best describes the Equipment Exchange Program?
- EMSA can exchange identical equipment (One-for-One) at the scene with OCFD
- OCFD provides EMSA with any OCFD equipment needed at the scene
- EMSA gives any equipment to OCFD that they need on scene
- EMSA can be called to the fire station to exchange any equipment necessary
35.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), which of the following is a renewal requirement for First Responder level?
- 6 hour refresher
- 8 hour refresher
- 12 hour refresher
- 24 hour refresher
36.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/006), who may determine if a scene is safe to enter?
- Company Officer
- Company Officer after contact with District Chief
- Company Officer after contact with OCPD dispatch
- None of the above
37.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), what information is in Section 3 of an incident report?
- Local Data Fields
- Company Response Information
- FIRS Codes
- A and C
38.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/006), which of the following is considered a potentially violent scene?
- Incidents where PD requests staging
- Attempted suicides
- A & B
- None of the above
39.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), what is the minimum continuing education for Semi-Automatic External Defibrillator certification?
- 1 hour quarterly
- 1 hour monthly
- 2 hours quarterly
- 4 hours quarterly
40.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), what incident type is used for EMS calls when returned prior to arrival?
- Type 66
- Type 68
- Type 71
- Type 93
41.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/008), which of the following should be included in the patient report to the lead paramedic?
- Assessment findings
- Pertinent medical history
- Care given
- All of the above
42.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), which of the following is a renewal requirement for EMT Intermediate level?
- 12 hour refresher
- 24 hour refresher
- 36 hour refresher
- 48 hour refresher
43.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), how many fields were removed from the Local Data fields of the incident report for the new reporting system?
- 4 field
- 10 fields
- 14 fields
- 24 fields
44.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/009), in the 1st few minutes of sudden death, what percentage of patients will be in V-fib?
- 50% to 60%
- 60% to 70%
- 80% to 90%
- 90% to 100%
45.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/005), under which of the following conditions is the dispatch link printer turned off and EMSA notified?
- When printer is down for more than 5 minutes
- When printer is down for more than 10 minutes
- When printer is down for more than 15 minutes
- When printer is down for more than 30 minutes
46.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), which of the following require complete skills review and maintenance verification by Medical Control?
- EMT Basics
- EMT Intermediates
- EMT Paramedics
- B & C
47.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), all Assist Invalids where no injuries are found must be what incident type?
- Type 31
- Type 51
- Type 71
- Type 93
48.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/007), who is responsible for safety of patients and rescue personnel at a crime scene or traffic accident?
- The ranking law enforcement officer on scene
- The ranking OCFD Company Officer on scene
- The entire OCFD crew on scene
- Transport agency if on scene
49.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/009), who provides Ventricular Fibrillation protocols for OCFD?
- American Heart Association
- American Red Cross
- Medical Control Board
- American Association of Cardiologists
50.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/008), which of the following is required when OCFD personnel ride with the transport agency to the hospital to provide care enroute?
- Documentation on OCFD run report regarding the rider
- Calling OCFD QA Officer for approval
- Calling District Officer for approval
- A & B
51.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/003), under whose supervision does OCFD employees provide care?
- Medical Control Board
- Physician Medical Director
- Transport Agency
- A & B
52.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/010), what type of cards are issued to the public upon completion of an OCFD-administered CPR program?
- OCFD CPR Cards
- AHA Cards
- Red Cross Cards
- None of the above
53.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/009), asystole carries a survival rate of less than what percentage?
- Less than 1%
- Less than 2%
- Less than 5%
- Less than 10%
54.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), under the new documentation procedures, what did the Lift & Load incident type get classified under?
- EMS Assist
- EMS L & L
- EMS Lift
- None of the above
55.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/004), how many continuing education hours are required of an EMT Basic for renewal
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 36 hours
- 48 hours
56. According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), when must Local Data be used?
- On Fire Calls
- On Non-injury auto accidents
- On Invalid Assist Calls
- All of the above
57.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/006), what determines the maximum number of active instructors?
- EMS Coordinator
- Chief of Support Services
- Collective Bargaining Agreement
- Personnel Policies
58.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/014), what incident type is used for EMS calls where parties are gone on arrival?
- Type 66
- Type 68
- Type 71
- Type 93
59.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (TRG/006), how long must an EMT be actively certified before becoming an EMS instructor?
- 6 months
- 9 months
- 1 year
- 2 years
60.According to Emergency Medical Services SOPs (OPS/008), who assumes responsibility of the patient and directs patient care when the transport agency is on scene?
- Lead paramedic from OCFD
- Lead paramedic from transport agency
- Level III Paramedic
- B or C
Answer Sheet
1 / 31
2 / 32
3 / 33
4 / 34
5 / 35
6 / 36
7 / 37
8 / 38
9 / 39
10 / 40
11 / 41
12 / 42
13 / 43
14 / 44
15 / 45
16 / 46
17 / 47
18 / 48
19 / 49
20 / 50
21 / 51
22 / 52
23 / 53
24 / 54
25 / 55
26 / 56
27 / 57
28 / 58
29 / 59
30 / 60
Answer Key
1 / C / 31 / D
2 / C / 32 / A
3 / B / 33 / C
4 / C / 34 / A
5 / A / 35 / D
6 / C / 36 / A
7 / C / 37 / D
8 / B / 38 / C
9 / C / 39 / C
10 / B / 40 / D
11 / C / 41 / D
12 / A / 42 / C
13 / B / 43 / C
14 / C / 44 / C
15 / B / 45 / D
16 / A / 46 / D
17 / C / 47 / B
18 / B / 48 / A
19 / D / 49 / C
20 / B / 50 / A
21 / B / 51 / D
22 / C / 52 / D
23 / A / 53 / A
24 / D / 54 / A
25 / C / 55 / D
26 / D / 56 / D
27 / C / 57 / C
28 / A / 58 / A
29 / A / 59 / C
30 / D / 60 / D
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