DERMATOLOGY FELLOWSHIP QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
A 70 year old man with past history of COAD presents with two days of rash and fever. His only medications are metered aerosol inhalers of salmeterol and fluticasone.
His observations are all within normal limits.
Q1. Describe the appearance of this rash? (2)
Q2. What are the potential causes of this rash? (5 marks)
Q3. List the potential complications of this rash condition (4 Marks)
QUESTION 2
A 70 year old diabetic man presents to the emergency department complaining of painful feet.
Q1. Describe the abnormalities seen in the photo (6 marks)
Q2. What are the likely causes of this appearance (3)
Q1. Describe the appearances seen in this photo ( 2 marks)
Q2. What is the single most likely cause of this appearance? (1 mark)
Q3. List the steps in the investigation, management and disposition of this child? (5 marks)
Question 3
A 70 year old man presents with a painful facial rash that started 5 days ago. He has had a recent viral illness with a cough and lethargy but is “feeling better”. There have been no new skin lesions for 24 hrs.
Obs are all within normal but he seems to have significant pain and is distressed
Q1. Describe the appearances seen in this photograph (3 marks)
Q2. What is the most likely diagnosis? (1 mark)
Q2. List the 4 examination findings that you will seek to exclude complications of this condition? ( 8 marks)
Complication / Exam Finding SoughtQ4. Outline your management/disposition for this patient (5 Marks)
Q5. The patient represents 3 weeks later with an improved rash but intolerable pain. He has been taking panadeine forte and nurofen regularly with minimal effect. What is this condition? (1 mark)
Q6. What additional 3 pharmacological options are available for the outpatient treatment of this pain? List 2 complications of each these drugs (9 marks)
DRUG and INITIAL DOSE / COMMON COMPLICATIONS (2 each)MCQ Dermatology, Haematology, Rheumatology
1.Which rash is not characteristically found on the hands?
a)secondary syphilis
b)erythema multiforme
c)gonococcus
d)meningococcus
e)herpes simplex
2.In what dermatological condition is a Tsanck smear used to aid diagnosis?
a)Skin lesions of meningococcus
b)Herpes vesicular lesions
c)Secondary syphilis
d)Urticaria
e)EBV
3.Which is not true of erythema multiforme?
a)less than 30% of the skin must be blistered to make this diagnosis
b)classically there are target lesions, especially on the periphery
c)there tends to be associated fever and arthralgia
d)it settles within 7-10 days if left untreated
e)steroids orally quicken the recovery
4.Which drug is not likely to cause toxic epidermal necrolysis?
a)penicillin
b)trimethoprim
c)carbamazepine
d)cimetidine
e)piroxicam
5.Which is not a possible cause of a blistered patient?
a)molluscum contagiosum
b)hand, foot and mouth disease
c)eczema herpeticum
d)allergic contact dermatitis
e)bites
6.Which is NOT TRUE of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
a)it is most commonly seen in infants
b)it is toxin mediatied
c)there is no mucosal invovement
d)it tends to be less severe than toxic epidermal necrolysis
e)the focus for infection may be non cutaneous
7.Which infectious erythema is purely caused by toxin alone and not from the infectious process as well?
a)toxic shock syndrome
b)scarlet fever
c)streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
d)staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
e)all of the above
8.Which rash is not usually itchy?
a)urticaria
b)eczema
c)scabies
d)bites
e)scarlet fever
9.Which is not true of scarlet fever?
a)the erythema appears very early after the prodrome begins
b)the rash does not blanche
c)there is circumoral pallor
d)there is often pharyngotonsillitis
e)there is a strawberry tongue
10.Which is not one of the five criteria other then fever required to make the diagnosis of Kawasakis disease?
a)cervical LN
b)peripheral changes. Eg erythema and oedema
c)bilateral non purulent conjunctivitis
d)polymorphous rash
e)pustular tonsillitis
11.Which dose not tend to produce palpable purpura?
a)meningococcus
b)vasculitis
c)SLE, rheumatoid arthritis
d)Clotting disorders
e)Henoch schonlein purpura
12.Which is not associated with erythema nodosum?
a)sarcoid
b)crohns disease
c)leukemia
d)salmonella
e)hep B
13.Which is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?
a)IBD
b)Rheumatoid arthritis
c)Leukemia
d)salmonella
e)myeloma
14.Which is NOT TRUE of pemphigus and pemphigoid?
a)the prognosis of pemphigoid is better
b)pemphigous lesions are intra dermal where as the lesions in pemphigoid are subdermal
c)mucosa is more often involved in pemhigous
d)clinically the two can be usually differentiated with a good examination
e)they are both autoimmune disorders
15.Which is the usual causative organism in toxic shock syndrome?
a)staph aureus
b)e coli
c)pneumococcus
d)strep pyogenes
e)meningococcus
16.Which medication does not commonly cause photosensitivity eruptions?
a)thiazide diuretics
b)spironolactone
c)loop diuretics
d)amioderone
e)sulfonylureas
17.Which is not true of antiviral medications if given within 72 hours of vesicle formation in herpes zoster?
a)it decreases time to healing
b)it decreases new lesion formation
c)it decreases recurrence
d)it possibly decreases pain
e) it possibly decreases duration of post herpetic neuralgia
18.Which is not true of measles?
a)Koplicks spots are seen a few days after the onset of rash
b)The rash appears a few days after the prodrome, starting at the head and moving downwards
c)Unimmunised contacts should be given MMR within 72 hours if over 6 months of age
d)If greater than 72 hours immunoglobulin should be given i.m.
e)Unimmunised contacts should be excluded from school for 2 weeks
19.Which is not true of henoch schonlein purpura?
a)it is a vasculitis of unknown cause
b)purpura are classically on the lower limbs
c)abdominal pain and malena are documented
d)renal disease is a potentially serious complication
e)steroids diminish the likelihood of renal complications
20.Which of these is no a cause of a macrocytosis?
a)hypothroidism
b)chronic alcohol intake
c)phenytoin
d)reticulocytosis
e)B12 and folate deficiency
21.Which is not a cause of a microcytic anaemia?
a)anemia of chronic disease
b)thalassemia
c)siderobliastic anaemia
d)fe deficiency
e)chemotherapeutic drugs
22.Which is a neurological sequelie of prolonged B12 deficiency?
a)subactue degeneration of the spinal cord
b)peripheral neuropathy
c)higher center disfunction
d)all of the above
e)none of the above
23.Which of these below is not a micrangiopathic hemolytic anaemia?
a)TTP
b)Hemolytic uremic syndrome
c)HELLP
d)ITP
e)DIC
24.Regarding TTP and HUS, which statement below is false?
a)they are probably of the same pathological entity
b)they both usually present with neurological abnormalities
c)they both cause a hemolytic anaemia
d)they both cause a thrombocytopenia
e)they both have normal coagulation
25.Which statement is false?
a)In both hemophilia A and B the INR will be normal
b)In both hemophilia A and B the APTT will be abnormal
c)Hemophilia A is more common than B
d)The desired treatment of Hemophilia B is administration of Factor IX
e)The desired treatment of Hemophilia A is the administration of cryoprecipitate
26.Which agent/s can be used to treat bleeding with von Willibrands disease?
a)desmopressin
b)factor VIII concentrate
c)factor IX concentrate
d)platelet transfusion
e)A and B
27.Which is not a common precipitant of sickle cell crises?
a)hot weather
b)dehydration
c)infection
d)high altitude
e)all of the above are precipitants
28.Which statement is false regarding Disseminated Intravascular coagulation?
a)pts usually present with hemorrhage
b)microthrombi/emboli are seen in some patients
c)replacement of clotting factors if the patient is bleeding has been shown to improve outcome
d)treatment of microthrombi with systemic heparin has been shown to improve outcome
e)all of the above are true statements
29.Which laboratory abnormality would you not expect to see in DIC?
a)decreased platelet count
b)high fibrinogen level
c)prolonged INR
d)elevated FDP
e)elevated D dimmer
30.Which of these commonly used drugs does NOT cause platelet dysfunction?
a)aspirin
b)penicillins
c)phenytoin
d)verapamil
e)tricyclic antidepressants
31.Which agent is not in cryoprecipitate?
a)factor VIII
b)factor IX
c)fibronectin
d)von willebrand factor
e)fibrinogen
32.In which disease is there a high incinence of philidephia chromosome?
a)CLL
b)CML
c)Polycythemia rubra vera
d)AML
e)ALL
33.Which statement is true regarding secondary polycythemia?
a)the erythropoeitn level is elevated
b)there is hepatoslenomegally
c)parietis is not a feature
d)it is usually secondary to states of low oxygen tension
e)the WBC and platelet counts are normal
34.Which is not a feature of tumour lysis syndrome?
a)hypercalcemia
b)hyperkalemia
c)hyperuricemia
d)hyper phosphatemia
e)lactic acidosis
35.What number of WBC would you expect to see in a tap of a septic joint?
a)<200
b)200-4000
c)2000-50000
d)5000 – 150000
e)nil
36.What number of WBC would you usually expect to see in a tap of an inflamed joint with gout?
a)<200
b)200-4000
c)2000-50000
d)50000-150000
e)nil
37.Which organism is not thought to be associated with Reiters syndrome?
a)yersinia
b)campylobacter
c)salmonella
d)e coli
e)chlamydia
38.Which is TRUE of Reiters syndrome?
a)the arthropathy usually occurs at the time of the acute infectious process
b)the arthropathy is usually involves 2-3 joints
c)there is usually associated uveitis
d)antibiotics are usually part of the treatment regimen
e)all of the above are true
39.Which arthropathy is not typically migratory?
a)viral
b)acute rheumatic fever
c)pseudogout
d)SLE
e)Gonococcal
40.What proportion of joint aspirates culture positive for gonoccocal arthritis?
a)90 –100%
b)75-90%
c)50-75%
d)25-50%
e)<25%
41.How should flexor tenosynovitis be managed?
a)immobilize, NSAIDS
b)immobilize oral antibiotics, NSAIDS
c)regular hand exercises, ice, elevation
d)steroid injections
e)admit, IV antibiotics, consider surgical intervention
42.Which of these is not a risk factor for gout?
a)alkalosis
b)low dose aspirin
c)diuretics
d)psoariasis
e)haemolysis
43.Which joint/s are typically spared in rheumatoid arthritis?
a)DIP
b)PIP
c)MCP
d)Wrists
e)C spine
44.Which is not classically a monoarthritis?
a)gout
b)pseudogout
c)sepsis
d)reiters
e)all of the above are usually a monoarthritis
45.Which of these is usually an oligoathritis (2-3 joints), not a polyarthritis?
a)reters
b)gonococcal
c)RA
d)Rheumatic fever
e)Ankylosing spondylitis
46. Which is not true of pseudogout?
a)joint aspitate show crystals that are positive birefringent
b)it is caused by calcium pyrophosphate crystals
c)the knee is the most common joint involved
d)treatement involves NSAIDS or colchicine
e)it is more common in the older age spectrum
47.Which is false with regards to olecrenon and pre patellar bursitis?
a)usually these are simply inflammatory
b)it is very uncommon for these to become septic
c)bursa aspiration is a safe and accurate way of differentiating them from a septic process
d)gm stain and culture is usually positive in a septic process
e)these bursitis’s should be given prophylactic antibiotics
48.The usual organisms in septic arthritis in a healthy adult are?
a)staph aureus, gonococcus
b)pseudomonas
c)salmonella
d)hemophilus influenzi
e)anaerobes
MCQs Dermatology
1 / Which statement is FALSE about SJS and TEN ?A / SJS involves < 30% epidermal detachment
B / Ocular involvement can occur
C / TEN tends to occur in those > 40 y.o
D / Nikolsky sign only positive in TEN
Answer
2 / With regard to skin conditions
A / Pemphigus is more common than pemphigoid
B / Pemphigoid occurs in older patients ~( 65 years)
C / Pemphigus most commonly is thick-skinned bullae on erythematous skin
D / Pemphigoid usually affects mucus membranes as well as skin
Answer
3 / Which of the following is true regarding toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)
A / There is a high mortality in children with infectious TEN
B / Staphylococcal infection is most common between ages 5–15 years
C / Drug-related TEN has a mortality of < 5%
D / Staphylococcal TEN in children does not involve the mucous membranes
Answer
4 / Which of the following is characteristic of the rash of measles?
A / Begins as a maculopapular rash, then becomes vesicular
B / “Slapped cheek” appearance and lacy reticular pattern
C / Pustules on an erythematous base
D / Maculopapular eruption starting on upper trunk and spreading downward
Answer
5 / Erythema nodosum is an example of
A / Serum sickness
B / Panniculitis
C / Vasculitis
D / Erythroderma
Answer
MCQs Wounds
1 / Percutaneous sutures will leave needle marks in the skin if left in place for any longer thanA / 24 hours
B / 2 days
C / 8 days
D / 14 days
Answer
2 / A wound slicing obliquely through the skin of the back would be best repaired by any of the following EXCEPT
A / Edges trimmed with a scalpel blade perpendicular to the skin then simple interrupted sutures
B / Sutured with a vertical mattress to prevent one edge sliding over the other
C / Exiting the needle superficially on the high side and deeper on the low side using a continuous suture
D / Undermining the low side edge to allow for the high side edge to slide underneath it prior to loose interrupted sutures
Answer
3 / Which of the following is FALSE in regard to finger tendon injuries?
A / All require prophylactic antibiotics.
B / All flexor tendon injuries needing repair should be done by a plastic/ hand surgeon.
C / Division of up to 80% of extensor tendon may be managed non-operatively.
D / All tendon injuries need to be repaired within 24 hrs.
Answer
4 / Regarding wounds, which are CORRECT?
A / Patients who are not tetanus immunized, all wounds require ADT and TIG.
B / Jagged edged wound has more skin tension per unit length than linear, so scars more
C / Shaving scalp hair prior to suturing decreases infection rate
D / A puncture wound to the foot may involve pseudomonas infection and should be treated with ciprofloxacin
Answer
5 / Regarding tissue adhesives for wound closure, which is TRUE?
A / Animal bites are not a contraindication to their use.
B / Dermabond (Octylcyanoacrylate) has half the strength of Histoacryl (N-Z- butylcyanoacrylate)
C / Tissue adhesive requires one minute to dry completely
D / Histoacryl (N-Z-butylcyanoacrylate) tissue adhesive has less tensile strength than 5\0 sutures
Answer
6 / Regarding wound repair
A / If using Ketamine, an IV cannula should always be inserted prior to procedure
B / Glue has the same tensile strength as 4/0 sutures
C / Staples have a low tissue reactivity
D / Adhesive tapes shouldn’t be used together with glue
Answer
MCQs Burns
1 / Which one of the following statements regarding burn wounds is TRUE:A / A patient sustaining a high-voltage electrical injury should receive an increased volume of resuscitation fluid per kilogram (as compared to what the Parkland formula would usually recommend)
B / With superficial partial thickness burns, the dermis is not involved
C / Burns often lead to early haemodynamic compromise
D / In Australia, sepsis is the major contributor to mortality following burns
Answer
2 / Which one of the following statements regarding chemical burns is TRUE:
A / Alkaline burns cause liquefactive necrosis of the tissue involved
B / A patient that presents without significant pain following a 15% hydrofluoric acid burn, can be reassured that his/her pain is unlikely to get worse
C / Acid burns typically penetrate the skin deeper than alkaline burns
D / Hydrofluoric acid burns do not cause tissue corrosion
Answer
6 / Which of the following options is least preferred for analgesia of Hydrofluoric acid burns?
A / Irrigation with H20.
B / Bier’s block technique using Calcium gluconate
C / IV Morphine in titrated aliquots.
D / Intra-arterial Calcium gluconate for finger burns.
Answer
4 / Regarding Burns which is TRUE?
A / The adult formulae using the rule of nines cannot be used in children
B / Fluid resuscitation rates are calculated and the time to administer it begins form the time patient arrives in the ED
C / Colloid fluid replacement has proven to be more beneficial in burn resuscitation than crystalloids
D / Using a child’s hand to determine % of burns, you must include the palm and the fingers as one unit
Answer