Biology, 8e (Campbell)

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Chapter 32

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An Introduction to Animal Diversity

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Multiple-Choice Questions

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1)

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Which of the following terms or structures is properlyassociated only with animals?

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A)

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Hox genes

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B)

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cell wall

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C)

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autotrophy

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D)

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sexual reproduction

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E)

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chitin

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2)

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Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition

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A)

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from organic matter.

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B)

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by preying on animals.

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C)

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by ingesting it.

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D)

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by consuming living, rather than dead, prey.

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E)

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by using enzymes to digest their food.

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4)

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Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?

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A)

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cells that have mitochondria

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B)

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the structural carbohydrate, chitin

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C)

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nervous conduction and muscular movement

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D)

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heterotrophy

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E)

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both A and C

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5)

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The number of legs an insect has, the number of vertebrae in a vertebral column, or the number of joints in a digit (such as a finger) are all strongly influenced by

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A)

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haploid genomes.

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B)

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introns within genes.

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C)

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heterotic genes.

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D)

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heterogeneous genes.

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E)

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Hox genes.

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6)

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What do animals as diverse as corals and monkeys have in common?

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A)

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body cavity between body wall and digestive system

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B)

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number of embryonic tissue layers

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C)

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type of body symmetry

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D)

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presence of Hox genes

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E)

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degree of cephalization

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9)

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The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a

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A)

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unicellular chytrid.

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B)

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unicellular yeast.

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C)

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plant.

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D)

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multicellular fungus.

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E)

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flagellated protist.

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10)

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Almost all of the major animal body plans seen today appeared in the fossil record over 500 million years ago at the beginning of the

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A)

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Cambrian period.

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B)

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Ediacaran period.

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C)

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Permian period.

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D)

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Carboniferous period.

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E)

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Cretaceous period.

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12)

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Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships?

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A)

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increased incidence of worm burrows in the fossil record

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B)

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increased incidence of larger animals in the fossil record

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C)

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increased incidence of organic material in the fossil record

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D)

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increased incidence of fern galls in the fossil record

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E)

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increased incidence of hard parts in the fossil record

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14)

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Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of

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A)

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mass extinction.

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B)

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evolutionary stasis.

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C)

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adaptive radiation.

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D)

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A and B only

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E)

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A, B, and C

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16)

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What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent?

1. tetrapods

2. vertebrates

3. deuterostomes

4. amniotes

5. bilaterians

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A)

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5 → 3 → 2 → 4 → 1

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B)

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5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4

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C)

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5 → 3 → 4 → 2 → 1

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D)

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3 → 5 → 4 → 2 → 1

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E)

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3 → 5 → 2 → 1 → 4

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17)

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Sponges and cnidarians are among the fossilized animals found in both the Ediacara Hills and the Burgess Shale from the Rocky Mountains of British Colombia. This observation requires that

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A)

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ancestral sponges and cnidarians had formerly been terrestrial animals.

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B)

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North America and Australia were united to each other about 550 million years ago (mya).

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C)

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land that now comprises the Ediacara Hills and the Rocky Mountains was underwater about 550 million years ago.

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D)

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only sponges and cnidarians existed at the time the sediments were deposited.

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18)

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Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that

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A)

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arthropods evolved before vertebrates did.

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B)

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extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant terrestrial vertebrates.

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C)

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ancestral arthropods must have been poorly adapted to aquatic life, thus experienced a selective pressure to invade land.

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D)

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vertebrates evolved from arthropods.

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E)

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arthropods have had more time to co-evolve with land plants than have vertebrates.

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19)

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An adult animal that possesses bilateral symmetry is most certainly also

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A)

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triploblastic.

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B)

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a deuterostome.

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C)

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eucoelomate.

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D)

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the product of metamorphosis.

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E)

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highly cephalized.

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21)

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Soon after the coelom begins to form, a researcher injects a dye into the coelom of a deuterostome embryo. Initially, the dye should be able to flow directly into the

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A)

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blastopore.

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B)

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blastocoel.

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C)

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archenteron.

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D)

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pseudocoelom.

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23)

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What is the correct sequence of the following four events during an animal's development?

1. gastrulation

2. metamorphosis

3. fertilization

4. cleavage

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A)

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4 → 3 → 2 → 1

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B)

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4 → 3 → 1 → 2

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C)

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3 → 2 → 4 → 1

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D)

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3 → 4 → 2 → 1

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E)

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3 → 4 → 1 →2

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24)

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At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a diploblastic embryo from a triploblastic embryo?

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A)

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fertilization

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B)

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cleavage

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C)

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gastrulation

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D)

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coelom formation

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E)

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metamorphosis

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29)

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Cephalization is primarily associated with

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A)

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adaptation to dark environments.

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B)

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method of reproduction.

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C)

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fate of the blastopore.

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D)

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type of digestive system.

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E)

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bilateral symmetry.

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30)

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Cephalization is most closely associated with which of the following?

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A)

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sedentary lifestyle

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B)

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concentration of sensory structures at the anterior end

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C)

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predators, but not prey

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D)

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a backbone

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E)

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a sessile existence

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31)

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Which of the following is acorrectassociation of an animal germ layer with the tissues or organs to which it gives rise?

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A)

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ectoderm: outer covering of digestive system

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B)

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endoderm: internal lining of blood vessels

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C)

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mesoderm: central nervous system

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D)

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mesoderm: skin

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E)

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endoderm: linings of liver passageways and lung passageways

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32)

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You are trying to identify an organism. It is an animal, but it does not have nerve or muscle tissue. It is neither diploblastic nor triploblastic. It is probably a

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A)

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flatworm.

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B)

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jelly.

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C)

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comb jelly.

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D)

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sponge.

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E)

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nematode.

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Figure 32.1

Figure 32.1 shows a chart of the animal kingdom set up as a modified phylogenetic tree. Use the diagram to answer the following questions.

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33)

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Which group contains diploblastic organisms?

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A)

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I

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B)

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II

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C)

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III

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D)

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IV

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E)

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V

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34)

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Which group consists of deuterostomes?

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A)

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I

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B)

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II

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C)

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III

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D)

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IV

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E)

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V

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35)

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Which group includes both ecdysozoans and lophotrochozoans?

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A)

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I

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B)

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II

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C)

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III

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D)

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IV

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E)

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V

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38)

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Which two groups have members that undergo ecdysis?

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A)

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I and II

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B)

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II and III

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C)

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III and IV

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D)

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III and V

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E)

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IV and V

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39)

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Organisms that are neither coelomate nor pseudocoelomate should, apart from their digestive systems, have bodies that

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A)

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are solid with tissue.

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B)

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lack the ability to metabolize food.

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C)

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are incapable of muscular contraction.

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D)

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lack true tissues.

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E)

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lack mesodermally derived tissues.

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40)

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What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that coelomates

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A)

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have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.

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B)

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contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such tissue.

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C)

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have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas pseudocoelomates do not.

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D)

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have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates have a digestive tract with only one opening.

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E)

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have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place.

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41)

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Which of the following functions is an advantage of a fluid-filled body cavity?

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A)

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Internal organs are cushioned and protected from injury.

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B)

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Organs can grow and move independently of the outer body wall.

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C)

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The fluid within the cavity acts as a hydrostatic skeleton.

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D)

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A and C only

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E)

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A, B, and C

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43)

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An animal that swims rapidly in search of prey that it captures using visual senses concentrated at its anterior end is likely to be

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A)

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bilaterally symmetrical and cephalized.

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B)

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coelomate and a protostome.

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C)

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eumetazoan and asymmetrical.

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D)

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diploblastic and radially symmetrical.

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E)

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heterotrophic and sessile.

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44)

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The blastopore is a structure that first becomes evident during

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A)

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fertilization.

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B)

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gastrulation.

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C)

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the eight-cell stage of the embryo.

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D)

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coelom formation.

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E)

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cleavage.

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45)

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The blastopore denotes the presence of an endoderm-lined cavity in the developing embryo, a cavity that is known as the

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A)

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archenteron.

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B)

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blastula.

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C)

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coelom.

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D)

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germ layer.

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E)

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blastocoel.

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46)

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Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes?

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A)

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spiral and indeterminate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth

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B)

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spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth

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C)

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spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus

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D)

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radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus

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E)

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radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth

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48)

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Protostome characteristics generally include which of the following?

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A)

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a mouth that develops secondarily, and far away from the blastopore

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B)

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radial body symmetry

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C)

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radial cleavage

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D)

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determinate cleavage

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E)

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absence of a body cavity

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The following questions are based on the description below.

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight-cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise one hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45 degrees and lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells (spiral cleavage).

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49)

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This embryo may potentially develop into a(n)

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A)

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turtle.

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B)

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earthworm.

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C)

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sea star.

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D)

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fish.

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E)

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sea urchin.

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50)

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If we were to separate these eight cells and attempt to culture them individually, then what is most likely to happen?

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A)

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All eight cells will die immediately.

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B)

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Each cell may continue development, but only into an inviable embryo that lacks many parts.

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C)

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Each cell may develop into a full-sized, normal embryo.

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D)

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Each cell may develop into a smaller-than-average, but otherwise normal, embryo.

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51)

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If an undisturbed embryo is allowed to develop further, then one should expect that

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A)

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the first opening of the gastrula will ultimately serve as the mouth.

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B)

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upon metamorphosis, the resulting trochophore larva will gain a backbone.

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C)

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upon gastrulation, a solid ball of cells will be produced.

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D)

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both A and B

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E)

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both B and C

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52)

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The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is that between having

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A)

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radial or bilateral symmetry.

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B)

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a well-defined head or no head.

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C)

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diploblastic or triploblastic embryos.

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D)

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true tissues or no tissues.

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E)

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a body cavity or no body cavity.

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54)

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What does recent evidence from molecular systematics reveal about the relationship between grades and clades?

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A)

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They are one and the same.

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B)

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There is no relationship.

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C)

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Some, but not all, grades reflect evolutionary relatedness.

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D)

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Grades have their basis in, and flow from, clades.

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E)

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Each branch point on a phylogenetic tree is associated with the evolution of a new grade.

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55)

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What is characteristic of all ecdysozoans?

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A)

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the deuterostome condition

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B)

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some kind of exoskeleton, or hard outer covering

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C)

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a pseudocoelom

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D)

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agile, speedy, and powerful locomotion

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E)

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the diploblastic condition

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57)

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Phylogenetic trees are best described as

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A)

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true and inerrant statements about evolutionary relationships.

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B)

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hypothetical portrayals of evolutionary relationships.

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C)

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the most accurate representations possible of genetic relationships among taxa.

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D)

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theories of evolution.

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E)

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the closest things to absolute certainty that modern systematics can produce.

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58)

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According to the evidence collected so far, the animal kingdom is

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A)

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monophyletic.

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B)

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paraphyletic.

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C)

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polyphyletic.

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D)

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euphyletic.

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E)

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multiphyletic.

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60)

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Which of the following organisms are deuterostomes?

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A)

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molluscs

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B)

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annelids

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C)

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echinoderms

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D)

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chordates

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E)

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both C and D

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The following eight questions refer to Figure 32.2A (morphological) and Figure 32.2B (molecular) phylogenetic trees of the animal kingdom.

Figure 32.2A: Morphological Phylogeny

Figure 32.2B: Molecular Phylogeny

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64)

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In the traditional phylogeny (Fig. 32.2A), the sponges are considered to be a clade, whereas in the molecular phylogeny (Fig. 32.2B), sponges

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A)

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do not all have a common ancestor that is unique only to them.

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B)

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are polyphyletic.

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C)

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called the Calcarea should actually be included among the eumetazoa.

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D)

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called the Silicea are the sole organisms that should be properly called "sponges."

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E)

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called the Calcarea diverged from the lineage that eventually produced the eumetazoa earlier than did the Silicea.

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65)

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If the traditional phylogeny (Fig. 32.2A) eventually becomes obsolete, the formerly close relationship depicted between the annelids and arthropods will probably be viewed, in retrospect, as an instance of

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A)

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scientific fraud.

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B)

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lack of objectivity on the parts of arrogant or egotistical scientists.

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C)

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scientists having mistakenly identified analogous features as homologous features.

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D)

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the inherent invalidity of all evolutionary biology.

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E)

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an evolutionary relationship that modern scientists had "set in stone," now having crumbled.

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67)

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In the traditional phylogeny (Fig. 32.2A), the phylum Platyhelminthes is depicted as a sister taxon to the rest of the protostome phyla, and as having diverged earlier from the lineage that led to the rest of the protostomes. In the molecular phylogeny (Fig. 32.2B), Platyhelminthes is depicted as a lophotrochozoan phylum. What probably led to this change?

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A)

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Platyhelminthes ceased to be recognized as true protostomes.

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B)

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The removal of the acoel flatworms (Acoela) from the Platyhelminthes allowed the remaining flatworms to be clearly tied to the lophotrochozoa.

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C)

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All Platyhelminthes must have a well-developed lophophore as their feeding apparatus.

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D)

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Platyhelminthes' close genetic ties to the arthropods became clear as their Hox gene sequences were studied.

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68)

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What is true of the clade Ecdysozoa?

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A)

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It includes all animals that molt at some time during their lives.

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B)

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It includes all animals that undergo metamorphosis at some time during their lives.

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C)

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It includes all animals that have body cavities known as pseudocoeloms.

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D)

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It includes all animals with genetic similarities that are shared with no other animals.

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E)

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It includes all animals in the former clade "Protostomia" that truly do have protostome development.

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69)

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Phylogenetic trees, such as those in Fig. 32.2, are best understood as being scientific

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A)

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theories.

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B)

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laws.

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C)

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principles.

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D)

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hypotheses.

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E)

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dogmas

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