Nervous, Muscle, & Cardiovascular Systems
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University / Leader: / Kristina
Course: / AnS 214
Instructor: / Selsby
Date: / 3/5/2014
1. What is the primary difference the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system?
a. The somatic nervous system enables us to control our involuntary muscles, while the autonomic nervous system controls our glands.
b. The somatic nervous system allows us to control our skeletal muscles, and the autonomic nervous system controls activity that humans cannot consciously control, such as pumping of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive tract.
c. The autonomic nervous system allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles, and the somatic nervous system controls activity that humans cannot consciously control, such as the pumping of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive tract.
d. The autonomic nervous system enables us to control our involuntary muscles, while the somatic nervous system controls our gland.
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of neurons?
a. Neurons can function optimally for over 100 years.
b. In general, neurons cannot be replaced if destroyed.
c. Neurons require continuous and abundant supplies of oxygen, and cannot survive for more than a few minutes without it.
d. Neurons are relatively small, simple-structured cells.
3. What is the difference between the clusters of cell bodies called nuclei and those known as ganglia?
a. There is no difference between nuclei and ganglia.
b. Nuclei exist in all cells throughout the body, and ganglia exist only within the brain and spinal cord.
c. Nuclei exist in the CNS, ganglia in the PNS.
d. Nuclei exist in the PNS, ganglia in the CNS.
4. Which of the following membrane ion channels open and close in response to changes in the membrane potentials?
a. Voltage-gated channels
b. Chemically gated channels
c. Mechanically gated channels
d. Non-gated channels
5. Which of the following is not true of chemical synapses?
a. They transmit nerve impulses directly from one neuron to another.
b. Each comprised of an axon terminal and a receptor region.
c. They possess pre- and postsynaptic membranes separated by a synaptic cleft.
d. They communicate unidirectionally.
6. The sensory, or afferent, division of the peripheral nervous system transmits information from the ______to the CNS.
a. Kidney
b. Skin
c. Heart
d. Stomach
7. Which of the following statements best describes the membrane situation in the resting state in the neuron?
a. All the voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels are closed.
b. Only the voltage-gated K+ channels are open.
c. Only the voltage-gated Na+ channels are open.
d. Only the voltage-gated K+ are closed.
8. Which of the following events is NOT involved in the transfer of information across a chemical synapse?
a. A neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis.
b. Direct flow of ions from one neuron to the next.
c. Neurotransmitters bind to the postsynaptic receptors.
d. Calcium channels open in the presynaptic region.
9. Which of the following electrical events occurs when a certain threshold is reached?
a. Resting membrane potential
b. EPSP
c. Action potential
d. IPSP
10. During which phase of an action potential are voltage-gated K+ channels open, while voltage gated Na+ channels closed?
a. Repolarizing phase
b. Resting state
c. Regeneration
d. Depolarizing phase
11. A potential of -90 mV is considered:
a. A normal resting potential.
b. A graded potential
c. Depolarized
d. Hyperpolarized
12. Which of the following statements concering inhibitory synapses (IPSPs) is correct?
a. The postsynaptic membrane becomes less permeable to potassium.
b. Channels allow both sodium and potassium ions to diffuse simultaneously through the membrane.
c. Postsynaptic membrane becomes more permeable to potassium and chloride.
d. The postsynaptic membrane becomes less permeable to sodium.
13. Which of the following neuroglia is most responsible for the blood-brain barrier?
a. Satellite cells
b. Astrocytes
c. Olgodendrocytes
d. Schwann cells
14. Which of the following defines “integration”?
a. Increasing the level of one substance in response to a decrease in the level of another
b. Monitoring changes both inside and outside the body.
c. Activating effector organs.
d. Processing and interpretation of sensory input and determining what should be done each moment in the body.
15. The sodium-potassium ion pump will:
a. Pump one sodium ion out of the cell for every ion of potassium it brings into the cell.
b. Pump three potassium ions out of the cell for every two sodium ions it brings into the cell.
c. Pump three sodium ions out of the cell for every two ions of potassium it brings into the cell.
d. Pump one potassium ion out of the cell for every ion of sodium it brings into the cell.
16. A neuron will not respond to a second stimulus of equal strength to the first stimulus to which it has already responded because:
a. The neuron is myelinated.
b. Action potential generation is an all-or-none phenomenon.
c. The neuron is in the absolute refractory period.
d. Neurons are self-propagating cells.
17. The ______cells are found in the CNS and the ______cells are found in the PNS, both wrapping around nerve fibers:
a. Schwann cells, Oligodendrocytes
b. Oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells
c. Oligodendrocytes, Astrocytes
d. Astrocytes, Schwann cell
18. Action potentials become weaker with distance.
a. True
b. False
19. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
1. Neurotransmitter is released
2. Action potential reaches the axon terminal
3. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal
4. Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the post-synaptic cell
5. The post synaptic cell depolarizes.
a. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
d. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
20. The ______serve as a communication network that coordinates the contraction of each myofibril that makes up the muscle fiber.
a. T-tubules
b. Thin filaments
c. Z discs
d. A bands
21. Acetylcholinesterase:
a. Activates acetylcholine.
b. Breaks down acetylcholine.
c. Is another name for acetylcholine.
d. Helps acetylcholine bind to its receptor.
22. Myofibrils are composed of repeating contractile elements called:
a. Actin
b. Myofilaments
c. Sarcomeres
d. Myosin
23. Which of the following statements is false?
a. During contraction, the distance between Z disks of a sarcomere decreases.
b. During contraction, thin filaments slide past think filaments so that actin and myosin filaments overlap.
c. During contraction, thin filaments slide past thick filaments so that actin and myosin filaments do not overlap.
d. During contraction, actin-myosin cross bridges form.
24. If a muscle is applied to a load that exceeds the muscle’s maximum tension :
a. The muscle length will shorten during contraction.
b. The contraction is isotonic.
c. The load will be moved by the contraction.
d. The muscle length will not change during contraction
25. What would happen if a muscle became totally depleted of ATP?
a. The muscle would remain in a contracted state due to an inability to break actin-myosin cross bridges.
b. The muscle would exhibit isometric contraction.
c. The muscle would relax and lengthen due to an inability to sustain actin-myosin cross-bridges.
d. The muscle would exhibit isotonic contraction.
26. An entire muscle is surrounded by:
a. Epimysium
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epidermis
27. As an axon enters a muscle, it branches into a number of axonal terminals, each of which forms a neuromuscular junction with a single fiber. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies is called a:
a. Neuromuscular junction.
b. Motor end plate.
c. Motor unit.
d. Synaptic knob.
28. What is the ion released from the terminal cisternae that combines with troponin and removes the blocking action of tropomyosin, resulting in the formation of the cross bridge?
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Mg2+
d. Ca2+
29. Which of the following best describes the composition of the structure known as a triad in a skeletal muscle fiber?
a. Sarcolemma, sarcoplasm, and sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Terminal cisterna, transverse tubule, and terminal cisterna
c. Actin, troponin, topomyosin
d. A band, I band, and H band
30. The sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is known as the:
a. Membrane repolarization
b. Membrane hyperpolarization
c. Action potential
d. Motor end plate potential
31. All of the following terms refer to the ability to receive and respond to a stimulus, except:
a. Excitability
b. Responsiveness
c. Irritability
d. Contractility
32. Elasticity refers to the ability of a muscle fibers to:
a. Shorten forcibly when adequate stimulated
b. Receive and respond to a stimulus
c. Be stretched
d. Recoil and resume its resting length after being stretched
33. A sarcomere is part of a:
a. Perimysium
b. Endomysium
c. Myofilament
d. Myofibril
34. Which of the following statements about slow twitch muscle fibers is false?
a. Slow-twitch muscle fibers are smaller than fast-twitch fibers.
b. Slow-twitch muscle fibers have a higher rate of ATPase activity than fast-twitch fibers.
c. Slow-twitch muscle fibers are fatigue resistant.
d. Slow-twitch muscle fibers take a longer time to relax than fast-twitch fibers.
35. Which of the following is a regulatory protein of muscle?
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Tropomyosin
d. Titin
36. The principle that states the force of contraction is dependent on the degree of stretch or contraction prior to stimulation is the:
a. Length-tension relationship
b. Sliding filament theory
c. Muscle tone
d. Summation principle
37. The time lapse between the beginning of stimulus and the beginning of a twitch is called:
a. Refractory period
b. Contraction phase
c. Relaxation phase
d. Latent period
38. What is it called when there is no relaxation at all between muscle contraction stimuli?
a. Unfused tetany
b. Fused tetany
c. Temporal summation
d. Spatial summation
39. Cardiac output is:
a. The number of times the heart beats in one minute.
b. The number of impulses fired by the SA node in one minute.
c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart during every ventricular contraction
d. The amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute
40. Choose the correct sequence of current flow through the heart wall.
a. SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches.
b. AV node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches.
c. SA node, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers.
d. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle of His, eight and left bundle branches.
41. Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart.
a. Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right atrium
b. Left atrium, left ventricle, right, ventricle, right atrium, and lungs
c. Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium
d. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle
42. The absolute refractory period refers to the time during which:
a. The muscle cell is not in a position to respond to a stimulus of any strength.
b. The muscle cell is ready to respond to a threshold stimulus.
c. The muscle cell is ready to respond to any stimulus.
d. A cardiac muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts only 1 to 2 milliseconds.
43. The pacemaker of the heart is the:
a. AV node
b. Bundle of His
c. The bundle branches
d. SA node
44. The ability of some cardiac muscle cells to initiate their own depolarization and cause depolarization of the rest of the heart is called:
a. An action potential
b. Automaticity
c. Fibrillation
d. A functional syncytium
45. On the electrocardiogram, repolarization of the atria is represented by the:
a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. T wave
d. It does not appear since it is obscured by the QRS complex
46. Myocardial ischemia may cause:
a. Cardiac stenosis
b. Cardiac defibrillation
c. Angina pectoris
d. Cardiac arrest
47. Which of the following structures allow one cardiac cell to electronically stimulate another by allowing ion flow across the intercaled disk?
a. Fascia adherens
b. Gap junctions
c. Desmosomes
d. Intercellular folds
48. When the atria begin depolarizing, which of the following is occuring?
a. Ventricular filling
b. Ventricular ejection
c. Atrial filling
d. Atrial ejection
49. Which of the following would lead to a decrease in heart rate?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Parasympathetic stimulation
c. Exercise
d. Sharply decrease blood volume
50. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The firing of the SA node stimulates both atria to contract almost simultaneously.
b. The signal to contract is delayed at the AV node, allowing the ventricles to fill with blood.
c. Firing signals reach the papillary muscles before the rest of the ventricular myocardium
d. Ventricular contraction begins the AV valves and progresses downward to the apex of the heart.
51. Ventricular filling
a. Is accomplished by a full obstruction of the coronary vessels
b. Is preceded by the QRS wave
c. Has both passive and active elements
d. Is characterized by a constant volume, which is very difficult to alter
52. Cardiac contractions
a. Are spontaneous and rhythmic
b. Exhibit automaticity
c. Have a relatively short refractory period
d. A and B are both true
53. Stimulation of a cardiac cell
a. Is initiated by Na+ diffusion into the cell
b. Is stimulated by Ach binding to Na and K channels
c. Triggers the expulsion of Ca out of the cells
d. Is unnecessary, as the cell fires spontaneously, without preceding changes in membrane potential