1) the Branch of Science That Studies Groups of Cells and How They Work Together Is Called

1) the Branch of Science That Studies Groups of Cells and How They Work Together Is Called

1) The branch of science that studies groups of cells and how they work together is called ______.

A) physiology

B) histology

C) anatomy

D) serology

E) None of the answers are correct.

2) Which type of anatomy refers to the study of all of the superficial and internal features in a specific area of the body?

A) surface anatomy

B) regional anatomy

C) systemic anatomy

D) gross anatomy

E) organismal anatomy

3) The inability of the heart to function properly due to physical damage from a chest wound, making it ineffective even when most of the heart muscle cells are intact and uninjured, most directly involves which level of organization of body structures?

A) chemical

B) tissue

C) organ

D) cellular

E) organism

4) Growth and differentiation often include ______.

A) specialization of individual cells

B) increase in cell size

C) increase in cell numbers

D) changes in form and function

E) All of the answers are correct.

5) Directing immediate responses to stimuli, usually by coordinating the activities of other organ systems is the function of the ______.

A) integumentary system

B) endocrine system

C) urinary system

D) nervous system

E) reproductive system

6) Organs of the urinary system include ______.

A) ureters and kidneys

B) liver and pancreas

C) thymus and spleen

D) bronchi and alveoli

E) None of the answers are correct.

7) A frontal (coronal) section is in a plane that ______.

A) is at right angles to the longitudinal axis

B) divides the body into left and right sections

C) divides the body into anterior and posterior sections

D) divides the body into superior and inferior sections

E) divides the body into frontal sections

8) The serous membrane that lines the outer surface of a lung is called the ______.

A) visceral peritoneum

B) parietal pericardium

C) visceral pleura

D) parietal mesentery

E) None of the answers are correct.

9) The pericardial cavity contains which of the following?

A) heart

B) liver

C) intestines

D) brain

E) both the heart and the liver

10) The two layers of a serous membrane are ______.

A) pericardial and parietal

B) double sheets of peritoneum

C) visceral and parietal

D) pleural and parietal

E) internal and external

11) The anatomical name for the front of the elbow is ______.

A) olecranon

B) antecubitis

C) carpus

D) antebrachium

E) manus

12) A ______section is produced if the body is separated into superior and inferior portions.

A) coronal

B) medial

C) frontal

D) parasagittal

E) transverse

13) Pain originating from the spleen would most likely be felt in the ______abdominopelvic quadrant.

A) right upper

B) right lower

C) left upper

D) left lower

E) left inguinal

14) A ______section through the umbilicus divides the human body into equal left and right portions.

A) cross-sectional

B) parasagittal

C) transverse

D) coronal

E) midsagittal

15) The femur is ______to the tarsus.

A) lateral

B) distal

C) medial

D) proximal

E) dorsal

16) Which of the following describes phospholipids in the plasmalemma?

A) The lipid tails are hydrophobic.

B) The lipid tails are hydrophilic.

C) The phosphate heads are hydrophobic.

D) The tails are at the surface.

E) The heads are on the inside.

17) The general functions of the plasmalemma include ______.

A) physical isolation of the cell contents from the extracellular fluid

B) regulation of exchange of materials with the environment

C) sensitivity to changes in the extracellular fluid

D) structural support of the cell

E) All of the answers are correct.

18) Which of the following is a passive process for material movement across a plasmalemma?

A) receptor-mediated endocytosis

B) phagocytosis

C) exocytosis

D) active transport

E) facilitated diffusion

19) Which of the following is a function of microtubules?

A) being part of the spindle apparatus

B) control of metabolism

C) storage of secretory products and lysosomal enzymes

D) intracellular removal of damaged organelles or of pathogens

E) assist in DNA replication

20) Why are microtubules considered among the non-membranous organelles?

A) They do not have their own enclosed membrane.

B) They are associated with the plasmalemma.

C) They are aggregated into bundles.

D) They are composed primarily of the protein actin.

E) They are comprised chiefly of the protein tubulin.

21) Renewal or modification of the plasmalemma is the major function of which organelle?

A) lysosomes

B) Golgi apparatus

C) peroxisomes

D) mitochondria

E) cytoskeleton

22)Which of the following is true of cell division?

A) Its importance diminishes after an individual grows to maturity.

B) It requires accurate duplication (replication) of the genetic material.

C) Each dividing somatic cell produces four daughter cells at the end of cell division.

D) Mitosis is the distinct process for producing gametes.

E) Protein synthesis in preparation for division occurs during the S phase of interphase.

23) ______increase surface area to facilitate absorption of extracellular materials.

A) Cilia

B) Microvilli

C) Flagella

D) Centrioles

E) Mitochondria

24) ______are slender protein strands, usually composed of the protein actin.

A) Microtubules

B) Thick filaments

C) Microfilaments

D) Myosin filaments

E) Neurofilaments

25) Microtubules, thick filaments, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments are all part of the cell's ______.

A) endoplasmic reticulum

B) plasmalemma

C) cytoskeleton

D) Golgi apparatus

E) centrosome


26) Which of the following is true of cell division?

A) Its importance diminishes after an individual grows to maturity.

B) It requires accurate duplication (replication) of the genetic material.

C) Each dividing somatic cell produces four daughter cells at the end of cell division.

D) Mitosis is the distinct process for producing gametes.

E) Protein synthesis in preparation for division occurs during the S phase of interphase.

27)The ______is a complex structure produced by the epithelium and cells of the underlying connective tissue.

A) apical surface

B) basal lamina

C) ciliated epithelium

D) microvillus

E) stereocilium

28) A transitional epithelium ______.

A) provides specialized protection along the pharynx, urethra, and anus

B) is a simple epithelium whose exposed epithelial cells typically possess cilia

C) is usually found where mechanical stresses are severe

D) provides limited protection and occurs in regions where absorption and secretion occur

E) has a special characteristic that allows for considerable distention of the epithelium without damaging the component cells

29) The relatively few ______residing in connective tissues engulf damaged or dead cells or invading pathogens, and release chemicals that attract many more cells to activate the immune system.

A) mast cells

B) mesenchymal cells

C) fibrocytes

D) fixed macrophages

E) monocytes

30) When a local injury or infection damages or destroys connective tissues, the ______respond by dividing to produce daughter cells that differentiate into fibroblasts, or other connective tissue cells.

A) resting macrophages

B) fibrocytes

C) mucoid connective tissue

D) mesenchymal cells

E) mast cells

31) A(n) ______consists of 3 fibrous protein subunits wound together like the strands of a rope; it is flexible, yet very strong when pulled by either end.

A) collagen fiber

B) parenchyma

C) elastic fiber

D) reticular fiber

E) fibroblast

32) ______tissue provides a supporting framework, forming the stroma of the liver, spleen, bone marrow, and lymph nodes.

A) Dense irregular

B) Areolar

C) Multilocular adipose

D) Elastic

E) Reticular

33) Tendons, aponeuroses, and ligaments are all composed of ______connective tissue, which contains tightly packed collagen fibers aligned parallel to applied forces.

A) dense regular

B) osseous

C) cartilaginous

D) reticular

E) areolar

34) Elastic connective tissues ______.

A) are comprised of collagenous sheets or ribbons that resemble flat, broad tendons

B) often contain significant numbers of elastic fibers as well as collagen fibers; and usually connect cartilage-to-cartilage, bone to cartilage, or one bone to another bone

C) often underlie transitional epithelia; and are also found in the walls of blood vessels and surrounding the respiratory passageways

D) are actually cords of dense regular connective tissue that attach skeletal muscles to bones and cartilage

E) form an interwoven meshwork and do not show any consistent pattern; it provides strength and support to areas subjected to stresses from many directions

35) In cartilage, ______growth occurs when stem cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium divide repeatedly; the innermost cells differentiate into chondroblasts that produce new matrix.

A) superficial

B) appositional

C) subserous

D) interstitial

E) synovial

36) The ______, a type of serous membrane, covers the lungs and lines the thoracic cavity.

A) peritoneum

B) pleura

C) parenchyma

D) pericardium

E) periosteum

37) Merocrine sweat glands are classified as which of the following?

A) simple alveolar

B) simple tubular

C) simple coiled tubular

D) simple branched alveolar

E) simple branched tubular

38) Exocrine glands, which secrete a watery solution that usually contains enzymes are called ______.

A) mucous glands

B) endocrine glands

C) serous glands

D) mixed exocrine glands

E) None of the answers are correct.

39) Which of the following cells can be found in connective tissue?

A) mesenchymal cells

B) fibroblasts

C) eosinophils

D) mast cells

E) All of the answers are correct.

40) The epidermis in a section of thin skin includes the following four layers. In what order do these occur, from the basal lamina to the superficial surface?





A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 3, 4, 1, 2

C) 4, 3, 2, 1

D) 3, 2, 4, 1

E) 1, 3, 4, 2

41) The epidermis is primarily composed of which type of epithelium?

A) stratified squamous

B) stratified cuboidal

C) simple squamous

D) simple columnar

E) transitional

42) A hypodermic needle would penetrate the skin in which order?

A) papillary layer of dermis, reticular layer of dermis, epidermis

B) epidermis, reticular layer of dermis, papillary layer of dermis

C) epidermis, papillary layer of dermis, reticular layer of dermis

D) reticular layer of dermis, papillary layer of dermis, epidermis

E) None of the answers are correct.

43) Skin color is due to ______.

A) dermal blood supply

B) thickness of the stratum corneum

C) melanin

D) carotene

E) All of the answers are correct.

44) Merocrine sweat glands ______.

A) are most common in the axilla

B) are the same as apocrine glands

C) function in thermoregulation

D) are usually attached to hair follicles

E) produce a potentially odorous secretion

45) Which of the following parts of a hair is/are usually seen on the surface?

A) cortex, medulla, shaft

B) bulb, root, shaft

C) follicle, bulb, cuticle, cortex

D) hard keratin, bulb, root

E) shaft only

46) The two groups of sweat glands in the skin are ______.

A) sebaceous and merocrine

B) apocrine and endocrine

C) holocrine and endocrine

D) merocrine and apocrine

E) adrenal and holocrine

47) Arrector pili consists of ______.

A) skeletal muscle

B) loose connective tissue

C) smooth muscle

D) adipocytes

E) cardiac muscle

48) Another name for the subcutaneous layer is the ______.

A) superficial fascia

B) integument

C) reticular layer

D) deep fascia

E) papillary layer

49) The skeletal system participates in ______.

A) maintaining blood calcium levels

B) absorbing the shock of unexpected rapid body movements

C) facilitating transmission of nerve impulses

D) cushioning abdominal organs such as the kidneys

E) All of the answers are correct.

50) In addition to osseous tissue, a typical bone contains ______.

A) other connective tissues

B) smooth muscle tissues (in blood vessel walls)

C) neural tissues

D) All of the answers are correct.

E) None of the answers are correct.

51) Mature bone cells that maintain and monitor the protein and mineral content of the surrounding matrix are called ______.

A) osteocytes

B) chondrocytes

C) osteoblasts

D) osteoclasts

E) osteoplasts

52) Which type of cell divides to produce daughter cells that can differentiate readily after a bone is cracked or broken?

A) osteocyte

B) osteoprogenitor cell

C) red marrow cell

D) osteoclast

E) osteoblast

53) The function of an osteoclast in osseous tissue is ______.

A) to produce new bone matrix

B) to dissolve old bone matrix and release amino acids and the stored calcium and phosphate

C) to secrete the organic components of the matrix

D) to produce new osteoblasts

E) None of the answers are correct.

54) A bone cell that secretes the organic components of bone matrix is ______.

A) stimulated by activity of the thyroid gland

B) an osteoclast

C) an osteoblast

D) an osteocyte

E) located in a lacuna

55) Roofing bones of the skull form via ______ossification.

A) synovial

B) intramembranous

C) intrachondral

D) symphyseal

E) endochondral

56) Endochondral ossification begins with ______.

A) hyaline cartilage.

B) elastic cartilage.

C) fibrocartilage.

D) articular cartilage.

E) None of the answers are correct.

57) What is the fate of the chondrocytes that are present where bone is forming?

A) They move to a different region where bone has not yet formed.

B) They die and disintegrate, leaving cavities within the cartilage.

C) They remain within the bone matrix.

D) They line the central canals of the growing bone.

E) None of the answers are correct.

58) A long bone increases in length until ______.

A) appositional growth starts

B) the body runs out of calcium

C) epiphyseal closure occurs

D) expansion of the secondary ossification centers ends

E) death; bones grow as long as we are alive

59) What is the mechanism of marrow cavity enlargement in a long bone?

A) There is no mechanism; once formed, the marrow cavity does not change in size.

B) As bone matrix is added to the external surface, osteoclasts remove matrix in the center of the bone to enlarge the cavity.

C) Blood vessels entering the marrow cavity enlarge it by eroding away the inner surface of the bone.

D) The bone marrow cavity only increases in length, as the epiphyseal plates move apart.

E) None of the answers are correct.

60) Which of the following is a classification of bone shape?

A) sesamoid

B) round

C) square

D) triangular

E) indefinite

61) Processes that form where tendons or ligaments attach to a bone include ______.

A) condyles and trochleae

B) fossae, sulci, and foramina

C) rami

D) trochanters, tuberosities, and tubercles

E) canals and fissures

62) A chamber within a bone, normally filled with air, is a(n) ______.

A) condyle

B) ramus

C) sulcus

D) fissure

E) sinus

63) Blood vessels that supply the ends of long bones are called ______vessels.

A) endochondral

B) metaphyseal

C) periosteal

D) epiphyseal

E) endosteal

64) The structure that cradles and protects the pituitary gland is called the ______.

A) cristagalli

B) greater wing

C) lesser wing

D) dorsumsellae

E) sellaturcica

65) Which of the following lists includes only facial bones?

A) frontals, nasals, parietals, and occipital

B) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals

C) sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillae, and mandible

D) inferior conchae, vomer, ethmoid, nasal, lacrimals, and sphenoid

E) None of the answers are correct.