1. Rules of Evidence Control The

1. Rules of evidence control the
A. amount of evidence that may be admitted during a civil trial.
B. documents that can be considered during jury trial.
C. length of criminal court proceedings, but not civil court proceedings.
D. processes and procedures for question and answer sessions.
2. Which of the following statements is true of the Affordable Care Act?
A. It includes a provision for military service members who served in Afghanistan.
B. It makes it mandatory for patients to carry health insurance.
C. It offers parents supplementary coverage for dependents with chronic illness.
D. It requires health care facilities to maintain health records for at least 10 years.
3. A coder would assign a Q code as a temporary code for
A. procedures or services only.
B. holistic treatments for spinal procedures.
C. procedures, services, and supplies.
D. durable medical equipment only.
4. The Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) pays
A. subsidies to contain health care costs in rural facilities.
B. 65% of the schedule C rate for all surgeries.
C. an established rate for outpatient services in specific hospitals.
D. a percentage of the national average for the same surgery performed in a different geographic location.
5. Bones inside the nose are called
A. turbinates.
B. ethmoids.
C. maxillae.
D. septal mucosa.
6. The root word OBSTETR/O means
A. birth.
B. cesarean.
C. midwife.
D. pregnancy.
7. Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
C. Meniscectomy
D. Arthroscopy
8. Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of
A. endoplasmic reticulum.
B. extracellular matrix.
C. columnar epithelial cells.
D. endocrine gland cells.
9. A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned?
A. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4
B. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2
C. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5
D. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4
10. Another name for XXY syndrome is
A. Turner's syndrome.
B. Cooley's anemia.
C. Klinefelter syndrome.
D. Huntington's chorea.
11. The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called
A. microbiology.
B. cytopathology.
C. histopathology.
D. immunology.
12. The suffix –centesis means
A. calculus or stone.
B. abnormal condition.
C. separation, breakdown, destruction.
D. a surgical puncture for fluid removal.
13. The retention period is the amount of time that
A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets.
B. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation.
C. records must be kept.
D. medications must be kept in the medical office.
14. Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the ______system.
A. UCR
B. prospective payment
C. retrospective payment
D. capitation
15. Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes
A. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.
B. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.
C. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.
D. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.
16. Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve?
A. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body.
B. It's found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.
C. It's susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie's disease.
D. It's located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart.
17. A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99202, D63.1, J45.909
B. 99213, R06.82, F10.229
C. 99215, M19.011, R13.10
D. 99203, J06.9, R59.0
18. A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis and septic shock after experiencing a severe drop in blood pressure. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. R65.10
B. R65.21
C. T81.12
D. T79.4
19. Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is
A. business associates.
B. covered entities.
C. healthcare vendors.
D. insurance administrators.
20. A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. L72.3
B. L70.0
C. L73.1
D. L74.2
21. According to HIPAA, a patient's information may be released for
A. paternity testing.
B. determining premiums based on a patient's past medical history.
C. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.
D. research.
22. According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage?
A. $36.0666
B. $34.5741
C. $28.8457
D. $32.4726
23. What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law?
A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician's discretion.
B. The Supreme Court's decision becomes final in binding arbitration.
C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law.
D. State laws overrule federal law.
24. Prescribing combination drugs that contain multiple medications to cut down on the number of pills
patients take on a daily basis
A. increases the likelihood of compliance.
B. compounds the drugs' effectiveness.
C. supports good body function.
D. decreases the frequency of drug interactions.
25. A 55-year-old patient was injured while working as a carpenter on a construction site. While framing the roof of a two-story house, he fell and hit his head. He was diagnosed with a concussion to the left side of his head, and underwent a right frontal parietal craniotomy with removal of a subdural hematoma. During the patient's period of recovery, he was given a medication that resulted in a rash on his abdomen. The physician conducted an expanded problem focused history and exam, with straightforward medical decision making. What CPT code(s) should be assigned?
A. 99292, 99291
B. 99251
C. 99253
D. 99252
26. Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the ______system.
A. sensory
B. endocrine
C. circulatory
D. digestive
27. Which modifier indicates a staged or related procedure performed during the postoperative period?
A. -54
B. -59
C. -57
D. -58
28. What is the CPT code for a three-view x-ray of the mandible?
A. 70200
B. 70240
C. 70150
D. 70100
29. The code for an ESWL would be found in the
A. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT.
B. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS.
C. Digestive System of CPT.
D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.
30. A patient is seen in follow-up two weeks after undergoing cholecystectomy. During the follow-up examination, the physician notes that the abdominal wound has not yet healed. The patient undergoes a split-thickness autograft due to a nonhealing left lower abdominal wound that's 10 square centimeters. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 15200, L85.64
B. 15350, L52.64
C. 15250, L34.74
D. 15100, L76.82
31. A physician creates an opening in the kidney and inserts a catheter to drain urine. This procedure is called a
A. nephrostomy.
B. nephrological analysis.
C. nephrectomy.
D. nephrotomy.
32. The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called the
A. cochlea.
B. malleus.
C. stapes.
D. incus.
33. Electronic documents with a standard preset format are called
A. archives.
B. templates.
C. cloned documents.
D. cache documents.
34. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909
B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909
C. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919
D. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929
35. The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as
A. protected personnel.
B. health care administrators.
C. covered entities.
D. provisional health care data collectors.
36. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of postnasal drip, frequent nosebleeds, headaches, and difficulty breathing. She is diagnosed with a deviated nasal septum, hypertrophy of the turbinate, and inflammation of the ethmoid sinuses. The physician performs an endoscopic ethmoidectomy of the left nasal sinus, septoplasty, and turbinate excision. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 31255-LT, 30520-51, 30130-51, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2
B. 31255, 30520, 30130, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2
C. 31230, 30520, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2
D. 31230-51, 30520-LT, J34.2
37. The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT?
A. 33437–33537
B. 33533–33799
C. 33200–33205
D. 33202–33273
38. An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient's artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an
A. benign tumor.
B. cyst.
C. aneurysm.
D. mesenteric venous thrombosis.
39. What is the code for excision of Meckel's diverticulum?
A. 44800
B. 44820
C. 44850
D. 44700
40. A female patient is diagnosed with breast cancer of the lower-inner quadrant of the right breast. The patient undergoes a modified radical mastectomy of the right breast in an attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer to any secondary anatomical sites. The procedure was performed in three stages. In addition to the radical mastectomy, the physician also performed a right breast biopsy to treat the breast tumor in the lower-inner quadrant. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 19307-RT, 19101-RT, C50.211
B. 19307-58-RT, 19101-59-RT, C50.311
C. 11602, 15240, C50.312
D. 15852-58, Z48.01
41. The outcome of delivery code should be
A. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.
B. assigned to the newborn record only.
C. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs.
D. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.
42. Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range?
A. 57000–57010
B. 56800–56810
C. 57150–57180
D. 57000–57426
43. What is the CPT code description for 64483?
A. Injection, anesthetic agent, sphenopalatine ganglion
B. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, single level
C. Transforaminal epidural injection under ultrasound guidance
D. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, multiple levels
44. The HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that
A. practitioners should disclose only the minimum amount of health information necessary for the purpose of the disclosure.
B. restrictions on information disclosure exist only for patients with life-threatening illnesses.
C. physicians may release medical information at their own discretion.
D. the level of information disclosure permitted is based on the nature of the procedure.
45. The prefix sub- means
A. above.
B. lateral.
C. horizontal.
D. under.
46. Another name for Medicare Advantage is
A. Medicare Part A.
B. Medicare Part D.
C. Medicare Part C.
D. Medicare Part B.
47. The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-paid basis is called
A. pre-paid care.
B. managed care.
C. fee-for-service.
D. capitation.
48. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows
A. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff.
B. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions.
C. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess.
D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.
49. What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis?
A. 57020
B. 57859
C. 57135
D. 57600
50. Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in
A. Lotus 1-2-3.
B. PowerPoint.
C. Word.
D. Excel.
51. A patient who has paralysis of all four limbs is called
A. quadriplegic.
B. paraplegic.
C. tetraplegic.
D. hemiplegic.
52. The portion of health insurance that an insured pays before he or she is entitled to receive benefits from an insurance plan is called the
A. deductible.
B. capitation.
C. OPPS reimbursement.
D. coinsurance.
53. A health care practitioner who knowingly submits false statements to obtain federal health care reimbursement is guilty of
A. Medicaid omission.
B. Health Insurance Privacy and Portability misuse.
C. DHS claim misrepresentation.
D. Medicare fraud.
54. Data stored in a health care facility must
A. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely.
B. conform to the physician's expectations for data storage.
C. adhere to OIG policies and procedures.
D. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.
55. A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under
A. Medicare Part A.
B. Medicare Part B.
C. Medicare Part C.
D. Medicare Part D.
56. A female patient is seen for her annual gynecological examination. During the examination, the physician performs a test to detect cervical cancer. This test is called a/an
A. mycobacterial culture.
B. carcinoembryonic antigen test.
C. immunoassay test.
D. Pap smear.
57. The largest salivary glands are called the ______glands.
A. submandibular
B. amylase
C. parotid
D. sublingual
58. The suffix –stasis means
A. kinetic.
B. breakdown.
C. stopping and controlling.
D. flow.
59. Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis?
A. Metatarsal
B. Septum
C. Diaphragm
D. Tibia
60. A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it's administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis?