test Questions FOR DENTISTRY – Immunology2016/2017

  1. To primary lymphoid organs belong
  2. thymus
  3. spleen
  4. bone marrow
  5. lymph nodes
  6. gut
  7. Peyer´s patches
  8. appendix
  9. tonsils
  10. The thymus is
  11. a lymphoid organ where intensive cell proliferation and cell death occur
  12. an organ where T cells aquire antigen-specific receptors
  13. an organ where T cells aquire markers enabling them to leave the circulation
  14. an organ where B cells aquire antigen-specific receptors
  15. an organ that is maximally active late in life
  16. To secondary lymphoid organs belong
  17. thymus
  18. spleen
  19. appendix
  20. bone marrow
  21. lymph nodes
  22. MALT (mucosa associated lymphatic tissue)
  23. Peyer´s patches
  24. Which of the following applies to innate immunity
  25. high specificity
  26. involvement of phagocytes and NK cells
  27. involvement of lymphocytes
  28. presence of a memory component
  29. involvement of the complement cascade
  30. represents an evolutionary young defence strategy
  31. For adaptive humoral immunity is true that it
  32. involves HLA class I molecules
  33. involves helper T cells
  34. includes antigen presentation to cytotoxic T cells
  35. involves B cells
  36. most likely responds to bacterial infections
  37. involves antibody secretion
  38. For adaptive cell mediated immunity is true that it
  39. involves HLA class I molecules
  40. most likely responds to viral infections
  41. involves T helper cells
  42. involves cytotoxic T cells
  43. involves B cells
  44. involves antibody secretion
  45. Mechanisms of adaptive (specific) imunity involve:
  46. complement system
  47. T and B cells
  48. IgE antibodies
  49. NK cells
  50. phagocytosis
  51. secretory IgA antibodies
  52. Which of the following statements are true for the humoral innate imunity?
  53. responds to extracellular bacterial infection
  54. always requires the help from T helper cells
  55. is responsible for the chronic rejection following the organ transplantation
  56. involves cytotoxic T cells
  57. involves B cells
  58. involves complement activation
  59. involves secreted antipody
  60. participates in immunity against intracellular pathogens
  61. Typical features of specific (adaptive) immunity that distinguish it from non-specific (innate) immunity are:
  62. memory
  63. specificity
  64. immortality
  65. ability to act against extracellular bakteria
  66. no role in antitumor immune response
  67. Which of the following statements are true?
  68. TH cells express CD4 and recognize antigenic peptides associated with class II MHC molecules
  69. the pluripotent stem cell is one of the most abundant cell types in the circulation
  70. activation of macrophages increases their expression of class I MHC molecules, enabling them to present phagocytosed antigen more effectively
  71. lymphoid follicles are present only in the spleen and lymph nodes
  72. infection has no influence on the rate of hematopoiesis
  73. all lymphoid cells have specific antigen-binding receptors in their membranes
  74. all vertebrates generate B lymphocytes in the bone marrow
  75. At what age does the thymus reach its maximal size?
  76. during the first year of life
  77. teenage years (puberty)
  78. between 40 and 50 years of age
  79. after 70 years of age
  80. Haptens
  81. require carrier molecules in order to be immunogenic
  82. are small molecules
  83. are immunogenic
  84. are usually lipids
  85. cannot induce an immune response by themself
  86. are able to bind to specific antibodies
  87. can stimulate secondary antibody responses without carriers
  88. can induce only cell-mediated immune response
  89. Which of the following statements are true?
  90. most antigens induce a response from more than one clone of lymphocytes
  91. a large protein antigen generally can combine with many different antibody molecules
  92. a hapten can stimulate antibody production but cannot combine with antibody molecules.
  93. MHC genes play a major role in determining the degree of immune responsiveness to an antigen
  94. epitopes recognized by B-cell receptors can be nonsequential amino acids brought together by the tertiary conformation of a protein antigen
  95. both TH and TC cells recognize antigen that has been processed and presented with an MHC molecule
  96. each MHC molecule binds a single unique peptide
  97. all proteins are immunogens
  98. Indicate, which of the following statements regarding haptens and carriers are true:
  99. haptens are large protein molecules such as bovine serum albumine
  100. when a hapten-carrier complex containing multiple hapten molecules is injected into an animal, most of the induced antibodies are specific for the hapten
  101. carriers are needed only if one wants to elicit a cell-mediated response
  102. it is always necessary to immunize with a hapten-carrier complex in order to obtain antibodies directed against the hapten
  103. haptens include small molecules such as dinitrophenol and penicillinic acid (derived from penicillin)
  104. carriers include small molecules such as dinitrophenol and penicillinic acid (derived from penicillin)
  105. Indicate which of the following statements is true
  106. Most antigens induce a polyclonal response.
  107. A large protein antigen generally can combine with many different antibody molecules.
  108. A hapten can stimule antibody formation but cannot combine with antibody molecules.
  109. Proteins are better antigens than lipids.
  110. Small molecules are better antigens than large molecules.
  111. All protein molecules have the same immunogenicity.
  112. To the features of antigens belong:
  113. high molecular weight
  114. chemical complexity
  115. sufficient degradability
  116. foreigness
  117. opsonisation
  118. memory
  119. An immunologic adjuvant is a substance that
  120. reduces the toxicity of an immunogen
  121. enhances the immune response against the immunogen
  122. enhances hematopoiesis
  123. enhances the immunogenicity a hapten
  124. modifies the specificity of T-cell receptors
  125. decreases the avidity of antibodies
  126. Binding between an antigen and antibody:
  127. is reversible
  128. is covalent
  129. contains hydrogen bonds
  130. is irreversible
  131. contains disulfidic bonds
  132. is non-covalent
  133. contains van der Waals forces
  134. contains electrostatic bonds
  135. Indicate which statements are true for epitopes recognized by B-cells
  136. they always consist of a linear sequence of amino acid residue
  137. they may lose their immunogenicity when a protein antigen is denatured by heat
  138. immunodominant epitopes are determined in part by the MHC molecules expressed by an individual
  139. they are present in protein antigens only
  140. multiple different epitopes may occur in the same antigen
  141. their immunogenicity may depend on the three-dimensional structure of the antigen
  142. Complete antigens include:
  143. proteins
  144. polysaccharides
  145. glycolipids
  146. lipids
  147. native nucleic acids
  148. Which of the following cells are phagocytic?
  149. macrophages
  150. T-lymphocytes
  151. B-lymphocytes
  152. NK cells
  153. monocytes
  154. neutrophils
  155. eosinophils
  156. polymorphonuclear leukocytes
  157. Which of the following white blood cells further differentiate in tissues?
  158. neutrophils
  159. eosinophils
  160. basophils
  161. monocytes
  162. Professional phagocytes are:
  163. neutrophils
  164. eosinophils
  165. basophils
  166. monocytes
  167. macrophages
  168. T lymphocytes
  169. B lymphocytes
  170. plasma cells
  171. The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and lysosomes within the phagocytic cell is called a
  172. phagosome
  173. vacuole
  174. lysosome
  175. phagolysosome
  176. endolysosome
  177. Indicate which of the following statements concerning phagocytosis are true
  178. opsonisation involves adsorption of opsonins to the surface of bacteria or other particles
  179. opsonisation means chemical degradation of bacteria cells or other particles
  180. C3b is an important opsonin
  181. the main serum opsonin is CRP
  182. endogenous chemotaxins (chemoattractants) include C5a, IL-8, leukotriens
  183. phagocytosis can be realized only through Fc-receptors, CR1 and CR3
  184. respiratory burst is a dramatic increase in oxygen consumption and superoxide formation
  185. the basic enzyme of respiratory burst is myeloperoxidase
  186. the basic enzyme of respiratory burst is NADPH oxidase
  187. Components of the complement system are synthesised by
  188. lymphocytes
  189. plasma cells
  190. eosinophils
  191. hepatocytes
  192. monocytes/macrophages
  193. neutrophils
  194. Alternative complement pathway is activated by
  195. mannose-binding lectins
  196. yeast walls
  197. bacterial cell walls
  198. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
  199. nucleic acids
  200. aggregated immunoglobulins
  201. viruses
  202. To regulators of the complement system belong
  203. Lactoferrin
  204. Myeloperoxidase
  205. Factor Q
  206. Membrane attack complex (MAC)
  207. C1 inhibitor
  208. C4-binding protein
  209. Factor H
  210. Decay accelerating factor DAF
  211. Factor I
  212. Consequences of complement activation are
  213. enhancement of opsonisation
  214. enhancement of chemotaxis
  215. major basic protein formation
  216. decrease of inflammation
  217. removal of immune complexes
  218. complement mediated cytolysis
  219. production of anaphylatoxins
  220. Indicate which of the following statements is true
  221. A single molecule of bound IgM can activate the C1q component of the classical complement pathway.
  222. C3b fragment can act as an opsonin.
  223. All complement components are present in serum in a functionally inactive proenzyme form.
  224. Nucleated cells tend to be more resistant to complement-mediated lysis than red blood cells.
  225. Enveloped viruses cannot be lysed by complement because their outer envelope is resistant to pore formation by MAC.
  226. C4-deficient individuals have difficulty eliminating immune complexes.
  227. The classical complement pathway is activated by:
  228. most viruses
  229. antigen-antibody complexes
  230. antigen-antibody complexes containing only secretory IgA
  231. CRP
  232. haptens
  233. What is true for complement components:
  234. They are normally present in serum.
  235. They are synthesised in the liver.
  236. The complex C4b2a acts as C5 convertase.
  237. The most important complement component is factor C3.
  238. C1q is involved in the lectin pathway of activation.
  239. They can be ocasionally produced by plasma cells.
  240. Indicate the correct statements:
  241. Classical pathway is activated by binding C1 to antigen-antibody complexes.
  242. MAC forms a channel in the target cell membrane.
  243. Small amounts of C3b are continously present in plasma.
  244. Lectin pathway is activated by MBL.
  245. Complement activation is regulated by the blood clotting system.
  246. There are three pathways of complement activation: classical, altenative and lactoferrin.
  247. Classical pathway is activated mainly by complexes of antigens and IgE antibodies.
  248. Which of the following is referred to as C3 convertase?
  249. C4b2a
  250. C3bBb
  251. C3bD
  252. C3b(H2O)Bb
  253. C4b2aC3b
  254. C3bBbC3b
  255. Which of the following is true for the membrane attack complex?
  256. The same components are involved in all pathways of activation.
  257. MAC has a composition of C5bC9n.
  258. MAC causes polymerization of the target cells.
  259. MAC allows passage of ions and water and subsequent lysis of target cells.
  260. C9 must always be attached for lysis to occur.
  261. C9 polymerizes to form a transmembrane channel.
  262. A lack of CR1 receptors on red blood cells results in
  263. decreased binding of C3b to red blood cells
  264. lack of clearance of immune complexes by the spleen
  265. increased breakdown of C3b to C3Bb and C3BbC3
  266. increased production of C3 convertase
  267. Which complement-mediated functions remain intact in a patient lacking C3?
  268. lysis of bacteria caused by MAC
  269. opsonisation of bacteria
  270. generation of anaphylatoxins
  271. generation of chemotactic factors for neutrophils
  272. Active fragments of complement component C5 cause
  273. contraction of smooth muscles
  274. attraction of neutrophils
  275. vasodilation
  276. degranulation of mastocytes and basophills
  277. clearens of immunocomplexes
  278. Which of the following molecules act as complement regulatory proteins?
  279. membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis
  280. protectin
  281. membrane-attack complex (MAC)
  282. interleukin-1
  283. factor E
  284. membrane cofactor protein (MCP)
  285. ceruloplasmin
  286. C-reactive protein (CRP)
  287. α-antitrypsin
  288. What is true for positive acute phase proteins?
  289. rapid increase following infection
  290. nonspecific indicators of inflammation
  291. include pentraxin 3 and α2-macroglobulin
  292. the major members are CRP and serum amyloid A
  293. C-reactive protein acts as a non-specific opsonin
  294. C-reactive protein decreases 100 -1000 fold during inflammation
  295. include IL-1, IL-6 and TNF
  296. are synthesised in the liver
  297. they synthesis is under the control of TNF, IL-1 and IL-6
  298. are synthesised by plasma cells
  299. Indicate which of the following statements are true:
  300. chemokines are chemoattractants for lymphocytes but not for other leukocytes
  301. integrins are expressed on both leukocytes and endothelial cells
  302. leukocyte extravasation involves multiple interactions between cell-adhesion molecules
  303. most secondary lymphoid organs contain high-endothelial venules (HEVs)
  304. ICAM-1 is an endothelial adhesion molecule that binds to E-selectin
  305. granuloma formation is a common symptom of local inflammation
  306. Which of the following components of natural immunity contribute to acute inflammation?
  307. cyclosporine A
  308. histamine
  309. PGE2
  310. hydrocortizone
  311. neutrophils
  312. interleukin-1
  313. interleukin-6
  314. tumor necrosis factor
  315. According to the clonal selection theory
  316. lymphocytes bear multipotential receptors that become specific after contact with antigen
  317. lymphocytes bear receptors that have genetically determined specificities
  318. macrophages ingest antigens and make RNA copies that are transferred to T cells
  319. virgin B cells acquire specific receptors only after contact with antigen
  320. both B- and T-cell precursors in the bone marrow already have their specificities fixed
  321. Which of the following cells produce IgE?
  322. mast cells
  323. basophils
  324. eosinophils
  325. plasma cells
  326. neutrophils
  327. Human IgM
  328. is involved in ADCC reactions
  329. can pass through the placenta
  330. can activate the complement
  331. is a pentamer or a hexamer
  332. is produced in the primary immune response
  333. IgM is usually present in monomeric as well as dimeric form.
  334. include natural isohemagglutinins
  335. has a half-time of 5 days
  336. Monoclonal antibodies (MoAb):
  337. are formed exclusivelly to protein antigens
  338. contain only one binding site
  339. are only of the IgM class
  340. are produced in vitro by the hybridoma technique
  341. have identical antigen binding sites
  342. have been used with linked toxins as immunotoxins
  343. are produced by hybridisation of myeloma cells and B cells
  344. Immunoglobulin IgA
  345. binds to Fc receptors on masts cells
  346. is the most abundant immunoglobulin class in serum
  347. is present in secretions such as saliva, tears, and colostrum
  348. is present on the surface of immature B cells
  349. is the first serum antibody made in a primary immune response
  350. plays an important role in type I hypersensitivity
  351. plays an important role in protecting against pathogens that that invade trought the gut or respiratory mucosa
  352. activates complement by the classical pathway
  353. participates in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
  354. Immunoglobulin IgG
  355. binds to Fc receptors on masts cells
  356. is the most abundant immunoglobulin class in serum
  357. is present on the surface of immature B cells
  358. is the first serum antibody made in a primary immune response
  359. plays an important role in type I hypersensitivity
  360. plays an important role in protecting against pathogens that that invade trought the gut or respiratory mucosa
  361. activates complement by the classical pathway
  362. participates in an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
  363. Physiologic function of IgE molecules is mediating/providing
  364. immunity to parasites and helmints
  365. anaphylactic reactions
  366. contractions of smooth muscles
  367. immunity to viruses
  368. mucosal immunity
  369. function is unknown
  370. Human IgG
  371. can pass the placenta
  372. can be cleaved by pepsin and yet remains divalent
  373. has a half-time of app. 23 days
  374. can activate the complement
  375. is involved in hypersensitivity type I reactions
  376. is an opsonizing antibody
  377. is involved in ADCC reactions
  378. can neutralize toxins
  379. is present on basophils and mast cells in allergic people
  380. Which of the following statements are true for IgG?
  381. secreted form is a pentamer of the basic H2L2 unit
  382. binds to Fc receptors on mast cells
  383. multimeric forms have a J chain
  384. present on the surface of mature, unprimed B cells
  385. the most abundant isotype in human plasma
  386. major antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk
  387. present on the surface of immature B cells
  388. the first serum antibody produced in the primary immune response
  389. plays an important role in immediate hypersensitivity
  390. activates the classical pathway of the complement system
  391. Which of the following statements are true for IgM?
  392. secreted form is a pentamer of the basic H2L2 unit
  393. binds to Fc receptors on mast cells
  394. multimeric forms have a J chain
  395. present on the surface of mature, unprimed B cells
  396. the most abundant isotype in serum
  397. major antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk
  398. present on the surface of immature B cell
  399. the first serum antibody produced in the primary immune response
  400. plays an important role in immediate hypersensitivity
  401. activates classical pathway of complement
  402. Which of the following statements are true for IgE?
  403. secreted form is a pentamer of the basic H2L2 unit
  404. binds to Fc receptors on mast cells
  405. multimeric forms have a J chain
  406. present on the surface of mature, unprimed B cells
  407. the most abundant isotype in serum
  408. major antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk
  409. present on the surface of immature B cells
  410. the first serum antibody produced in the primary immune response
  411. plays an important role in immediate hypersensitivity
  412. activates classical pathway of complement
  413. Which of the following statements are true for IgA?
  414. secreted form is a pentamer of the basic H2L2 unit
  415. binds to Fc receptors on mast cells
  416. multimeric forms have a J chain
  417. present on the surface of mature, unprimed B cells
  418. the most abundant isotype in serum
  419. major antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk
  420. present on the surface of immature B cells
  421. the first serum antibody produced in the primary immune response
  422. plays an important role in immediate hypersensitivity
  423. activates classical pathway of complement
  424. Indicate which of the following statements is true (+) or false (-):
  425. J-chain is a part of the IgE dimer
  426. In the primary immune response, IgM antibodies appear first
  427. IgG antibodies are formed mainly to corpuscular antigens
  428. IgD antibodies are formed mainly to food allergens
  429. IgM is present mainly in human plasma
  430. Antibodies represent the gammaglobulin fraction of the human serum.
  431. Polyclonal antibodies are normally produced in vivo, whereas monoclonal antibodies in vitro.
  432. Monoclonal antibodies are prepared by lymphocyte hybridisation with myeloma cells.
  433. Immunotoxins are conjugates of monoclonal antibodies and cytotoxic molecules.
  434. Indicate which of the following statements is true (+) or false (-)
  435. Allotypes represent allelic alternatives of a single structural gene.
  436. Class switching arises when a B cell switches the type of light chain expressed.
  437. Class switching arises when a B cell switches the type of heavy chain expressed
  438. Antibody diversity arises from a variety of mechanisms including multiple germline V genes, combinatorial joining of the variable region gene segments, and somatic mutation.
  439. Idiotypes are antigenic determinants found only in the antigen-binding sites of antibodies
  440. The secretory IgAmolecule has a monomeric structure.
  441. The IgM molecule is a pentamer combined with one J chain.
  442. The class-specific antigenic determinants of immunoglobulins
  443. determine isotypes
  444. determine idiotypes
  445. determine allotypes
  446. are the same within species
  447. are located in the constant domains of H and L chains
  448. are located in the constant domains of the H chains only
  449. are located in the constant domains of the L chains only
  450. are located in in the variable regions of the H and L chains
  451. Indicate which of the following statements is true (+) or false