SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

1. A function of the supraoptic nucleus isregulation of

(A) oxytocin synthesis

(B) food intake

(C) sexual behavior

(D) biological rhythms

(E) thermoregulation

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Monoaminergic fibers are contained within the medial

forebrain bundle

(B) Noradrenergic neural projections are limited in their

distribution

(C) The paraventricular nucleus receives noradrenergic

projections from the substantia nigra

(D) Dopaminergic neural projections are widely distributed

in the brain

(E) Dopaminergic neurons in the arcuate nucleus project to

the globus pallidus

3. Regulation of autonomic neural responses is mediated by

activity in the

(A) fornix

(B) mammillothalamic tract

(C) dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

(D) stria terminalis

(E) ventroamygdalofugal pathway

4. Corticotropin releasing hormone

(A) blocks the secretion of adrenocorticotropinhormone

(B) blocks sympathetic neural responses to stress

(C) functions as a neurohormone as well as aneurotransmitter

(D) is secreted from the neurohypophysis

(E) is secreted from the hypothalamo-spinal tract

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) The central autonomic network is characterized by

unidirectional connections between brainstem and

forebrain regions

(B) Dopaminergic projections from the locus coeruleus

synapse with spinal preganglionic sympathetic neurons

(C) The nucleus of the tractus solitarius is a major

regulator of the central autonomic network

(D) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons secrete

norephinephrine

(E) Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons secrete

norepinephrine

6. Exposure to heat produces

(A) hypothermia in subjects with lesions in the posterior

hypothalamic area

(B) hyperthermia in subjects with lesions in the anterior

hypothalamic area

(C) piloerection

(D) increased thyroxine secretion

(E) cutaneous vasoconstriction

7. Recurrent inhibition in the hippocampus involves

(A) decreased conductance IPSPs

(B) dendro-dendritic synapses

(C) excitation of Renshaw cells

(D) granule cells of area CA3

(E) axon collaterals of pyramidal cells

8. Damage to the nondominant hemisphere would lead to

(A) elation

(B) indifference

(C) anger

(D) sadness

(E) irritation

9. Muscle atrophy is a common characteristic of

(A) upper, but not lower motor neuron syndrome

(B) lower, but not upper motor neuron syndrome

(C) both upper and lower motor neuron syndrome

(D) basal ganglia disease

(E) cerebellar degeneration

10. Which of the following statements regarding muscle spindles

is correct?

(A) Alpha motor neurons innervate muscle spindles

(B) Secondary fibers (II) from muscle spindles

innervate monosynaptically alpha motor neurons

(C) Nuclear chain and nuclear bag filaments are

muscle spindle fibers

(D) Extrafusal muscle fibers are smaller than

muscle spindle fibers

(E) There are four types of intrafusal muscle fibers

11. The Golgi tendon organ

(A) innervates monosynaptically intrafusal muscle fibers

(B) sends information to the spinal cord via Ia nerve

fibers

(C) is innervated monosynaptically by gamma dynamic motor

neurons

(D) is innervated monosynaptically by alpha motor

neurons

(E) sends information to the spinal cord, via Ib fibers

12. Stimulation of gamma static motor neurons

(A) elicits contraction of extrafusal muscle fibers

(B) excites the Golgi tendon organ

(C) elicits contraction of intrafusal muscle fibers

(D) inhibits nuclear bag fibers

(E) antagonizes the reciprocal muscle

13. "ON" center bipolar cells

(A) are hyperpolarized by the-neurotransmitter released

from cone photoreceptor cells

(B) are depolarized by glutamate

(C) have bar-shaped receptive fields

(D) send their axons to the lateral geniculate

(E) are contacted by "ON" center photoreceptor cells

14. The initial step which triggers the visual transduction

cascade in rod photoreceptors is:

(A) the isomerization of 11-cis retinal to all-trans

retinal

(B) the phosphorylation of rhodopsin by opsin kinase

(C) activation of the G protein, transducin

(D) an increase in the inward sodium current

(E) hydrolysis of cGMP

15. Injecting calcium into rod outer segments in the dark would

(A) enhance any subsequent light adaptation

(B) activate guanylate cyclase so that more cGMP would be

synthesized

(C) have less effect than in the light because the Na+/Ca2+

channels are normally open in the dark

(D) close sodium channels

(E) open cGMP gated channels

16. Rod photoreceptors are

(A) highly concentrated in the foveal region

(B) highly concentrated in the optic disc region

(C) surrounded by a pigment called macular yellow

(D) important in color discrimination

(E) capable of responding to a single photon of light

17. β Amyloid is hypothesized to produce neuronal degenerationby

(A) directly stimulating the influx of toxic amounts of

calcium

(B) increasing neuronal sensitivity to glutamate

(C) releasing excess amounts of acetylcholine

(D) releasing excess amounts of norepinephrine

(E) increasing the metabolic rate of specific neurons

18. Transmitter release initiated by an action potential in the

synaptic terminal would be decreased in the presence of

(A) curare

(B) TEA

(C) AChE

(D) low concentrations of extracellular Ca2+

(E) low concentrations of extracellular Mg2+

19. A ten-fold decrease in the concentration of e in the

extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve axon would

(A) increase the resting potential by 60 mV

(B) decrease the resting potential by 60 mV

(C) change the equilibrium potential for K+ by 60 mV

(D) increase the overshoot of the action potential by 60 mV

(E) increase the magnitude of the hyperpolarizingafterpotential by 60 mV

20. The probability of a spinal motor neuron initiating anaction potential would be increased by

(A) presynaptic facilitation of an inhibitory input to the

motor neuron

(B) increased frequency of IPSPs in the motor neuron

(C) decreased frequency of EPSPs in the motor neuron

(D) presynaptic facilitation of an excitatory input to the

motor neuron

(E) depression of an excitatory input to the motor neuron

21. The EPSP produced in a spinal motor neuron by an actionpotential in a la afferent fiber is due to an increase inpermeability of the postsynaptic membrane to

(A) Na+

(B) K+

(C) Ca2+

(D) Cl

(E) Na+ and K+

22. Normal skeletal muscle differs from muscle from a patient

with Myasthenia gravis in that the myasthenic neuromuscular

junction has

(A) MEPPs of lower amplitude

(B) MEPPs of lower frequency

(C) EPPs of larger amplitude

(D) less transmitter per quantum

(E) more transmitter per quantum

23. Myelinated axons

(A) are less dependent on the passive electrical properties

of membranes for propagating action potentials than

unmyelinated axons

(B) expend less energy for propagating action potentials

than unmyelinated axons with equivalent diameters

(C) are used primarily to transmit nociceptive information

(D) have lower propagation velocities for action potentials

than unmyelinated axons with equivalent diameters

(E) are shorter than unmyelinated axons

24. The monosynaptic stretch reflex involves all of the

following EXCEPT:

(A) dynamic nuclear bag fiber

(B) group Ia muscle afferent

(C) group IIa muscle afferent

(D) alpha motor neuron

(E) static nuclear bag fibers

25. Which of the following statements regarding muscle spindles

is correct?

(A) Gamma motor neurons innervate muscle spindles

(B) Secondary fibers (II) from muscle spindles innervate

monosynaptically alpha motor neurons

(C) Nuclear chain and nuclear bag filaments are extrafusal

muscle fibers

(D) Extrafusal muscle fibers are smaller than muscle

spindle fibers

(E) There are four types of intrafusal muscle fibers

26. All of the statements concerning the dorsal spinocerebellar

tract are true, EXCEPT:

(A) Enters the cerebellum in the inferior cerebellar

peduncle

(B) Crosses at spinal levels in the anterior white

commissure

(C) Originates from cells of the dorsal nucleus of Clarke

(D) Does not extend below L3 spinal cord levels

(E) Conveys impulses from muscle receptors to the

cerebellum

27. Pain is classified into the following type(s) EXCEPT:

(A)aching

(B)burning

(C)pricking

(D)soreness

(E)itching

28. The gate theory is based on

(A)the observation that noxious input suppresses pain

sensation

(B)the observation that mechanical stimulation produces

postsynaptic inhibition

(C)the concept that mechanical stimulation leads to

presynaptic inhibition

(D)the concept that the first order pain afferents undergo

recurrent inhibition

(E)the observation that descending fibers regulate the

incoming noxious input

SELECT THE ONE BEST ANSWER OR COMPLETION

29. Spinothalamic neurons

(A)mediate fine tactile discrimination

(B)are the most rapidly-conducting fibers in the

somatosensory system

(C)cross as the internal arcuate fibers

(D)are typically damaged in patients with tabes dorsalis

(E)have a functional homologue in the neurons of the

spinal trigeminal nucleus

30. A single column of cells oriented perpendicular to thesurface of the primary somatosensory cortex receives inputfrom

(A) only a single sensory receptor

(B) one modality of sensation from one area of the body

surface

(C) several modalities of sensation from one area of the

body surface

(D) multiple sensory modalities from multiple body regions

(E) the entire body surface with respect to a single

sensory modality

31. Vestibular hair cells

(A) project monosynaptically to Scarpa's ganglion

(B) generate high frequency trains of action potentials

(C) secrete endolymph into the membranous labyrinth

(D) release transmitter even in the absence of a vestibular

P stimulus

(E) all have the same axis of orientation in the utricle

32. The vestibulo-ocular reflex

(A) is mediated primarily by the lateral vestibular nucleus

(B) does not adapt to sustained head rotation in one

direction

(C) would be disrupted by damage to the medial lemniscus

(D) can be modified by retinal input

(E) must be voluntarily suppressed in order to stabilize

retinal images while jogging

33. Injury to adult CNS tissues is associated with

(A) modest cell loss because neurons are capable of cell

replication

(B) transneuronal degeneration

(C) a greater potential for regeneration compared to the

peripheral nervous system

(D) proliferation of Schwann cells which express factors

that stimulate axon growth

(E) chromatolysis in the distal segment of severed axons

34. During development, neuronal differentiation and synapse

formation involve

(A) numerical matching of the number of presynaptic neurons

and the size of postsynaptic targets

(B) preferential retention of synapses that are formed

by pioneer neurons

(C) guidepost cells which stop axon growth

(D) retaining vestigial axons that innervate inappropriate

postsynaptic targets

(E) cell-to-cell adhesion molecules which control the final

recognition events between pre- and postsynaptic

membranes

35. Which statement about hierarchical organization of the motor

system is true:

(A) Each structure in the motor system projects

monosynaptically to the spinal cord

(B) Most motor structures are not somatotopically organized

(C) Different motor structures project in parallel to the

spinal cord

(D) Reflex responses require the participation of both the

highest and lowest hierarchical levels

(E) The highest levels of the hierarchy are concerned

primarily with monitoring sensory details of the

motor response

36. The somatotopic representation of musculature in primary

motor cortex is characterized by

(A) a larger representation of the lower extremity

(B) representation of the head close to the midline

(C) equal representation of all skeletal musculature

(D) discontinuities in the motor map in which no muscles

are represented

(E) a larger representation of hands and face

37. Which statement is true of supplementary motor cortex, but

not of lateral premotor cortex?

(A) Lesions cause apraxias

(B) It is involved in coordination of bilateral movements

(C) Lesions cause muscle weakness

(D) It has monosynaptic connections with primary motor

cortex

(E) Its neurons discharge only after movement

38. The cerebellum plays a major role in

(A) maintaining balance

(B) integrating limbic information with the state of

potential targets

(C) creating a frame of reference for directing movement

(D) coding movement direction

(E) initiating movement

39. Diseases of the basal ganglia are often characterized by

(A) paralysis

(B) akinesia

(C) muscular atrophy

(D) thalamic degeneration

(E) loss of sensory acuity

40. Basal plate derivatives include

(A) cerebellar nuclei

(B) SVA nuclei

(C) the amygdala

(D) the pineal gland

(E) the red nucleus

41. If the foramina of Luschka and Magendie do not develop, the

individual will develop

(A) hydranencephaly

(B) obstructive, communicating hydrocephalus

(C) spina bifida

(D) encephalomeningocele

(E) obstructive, non-communicating hydrocephalus

42. An "OFF" center ganglion cell will be maximally stimulated

when its receptive field is exposed to

(A) uniform darkness

(B) uniform light

(C) a small, white spot centered on a dark background

(D) a small, dark spot centered on a white background

(E) a bar of white light on a dark background

43. An increase in the number of photons absorbed by a rodcauses

(A) opening of sodium channels

(B) hyperpolarization of the rod

(C) increased release of glutamate

(D) an increase in inward calcium current

(E) opening of cGMP gated channels

44. In comparison to rods, cones

(A) are more sensitive to light

(B) produce higher amplification of the visual signal

(C) saturate more readily in daylight

(D) have higher acuity

(E) contain more visual pigment

45. Which structure receives information from only the righteye?

(A) area 17 (V1) on the left

(B) layers 3 through 6 of the left lateral geniculate body

(C) the left optic tract

(D) the right optic nerve

(E) Meyer's Loop on the left

46. The cranial nerve(s) required for the accommodation reflex

is/are:

(A)only theEdinger-Westphal portion of cranial nerve III

(B) only thesomatic portion of cranial nerve III

(C) both the Edinger-Westphal and somatic portion of

cranial nerve III

(D) cranialnerves III and IV, coordinated through

fibers in the MLF

(E) cranial nerves III and VI, coordinated through fibers

in the MLF

47. Glutamate receptors

(A) are anion (Cl-) selective

(B) are all integral membrane proteins with seven membrane

spanning segments

(C) mediate the inhibitory postsynaptic potential

(D) mediate increases in intracellular second messengers

(E) are predominately localized to neuronal cell bodies

FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF

THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SHEET, FILL IN

THE CIRCLE CONTAINING

A. if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B. if only 1 and 3 are correct

C. if only 2 and 4 are correct

D. if only 4 is correct

E. if all are correct

48. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus (tuberal

region) promotes eating

(2) The medial preoptic nuclei display sexual dimorphism

(3) Lesions in the ventromedial nuclei produce overeating

(4) The suprachiasmatic nucleus receives projections from

the optic nerve

49. The median eminence is the

(1) site of projections from the arcuate nucleus

(2) anatomical interface between the brain and the

adenohypophysis

(3) site of projections from the paraventricular nucleus

(4) region rostral to the optic chiasm

50. The arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus

(1) contains dopaminergic cell bodies

(2) is involved in the regulation of prolactin secretion

from the adenohypophysis

(3) is located in the tuberal region

(4) is located in the base of the third ventricle

51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Fever results from an increased temperature set-point

in the hypothalamus

(2) Body temperature displays circadian rhythms

(3) Prostaglandin mediates the pyrogenic effects of

interleukin-1

(4) Thermoregulatory mechanisms are abnormal during fever

FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF

THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SKEET, FILL IN

THE CIRCLE CONTAINING

A. if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B. if only 1 and 3 are correct

C. if only 2 and 4 are correct

D. if only 4 is correct

E. if all are correct

52. The paraventricular nucleus

(1) synthesizes hypophysiotropic neurohormones

(2) regulates autonomic neural responses

(3) contains magnocellular peptidergic neurons

(4) projects vasopressin containing axons to the spinal

cord

53. Immunologic signals to the brain are mediated by

(1) interleukin-1

(2) tumor necrosis factor

(3) thymic hormones

(4) interferons

54. The immune response is regulated by

(1) bidirectional communication between the immune and

endocrine systems

(2) sympathetic innervation of lymphoid organs

(3) the central nervous system

(4) the ability of the host to cope with stress

55. The operculum of the inferior frontal gyrus is involved in

(1) syntactic aspects of language

(2) programming of finger movements

(3) programming of expressive language

(4) receptive language functions

FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF

THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SHEET, FILL IN

THE CIRCLE CONTAINING

A if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B if only 1 and 3 are correct

C if only 2 and 4 are correct

D if only 4 is correct

E if all are correct

56. Damage to the association zones of the parietal lobe of the

dominant hemisphere may lead to deficits in

(1) symbolic reasoning

(2) reading

(3) calculation.

(4) visuospatial construction

57. The Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is characterized by

(1) compulsive oral responses

(2) abnormal EEG activity recorded in the amygdala

(3) decreased aggressiveness

(4) diminished sexual activity

58. Classical conditioning results in

(1) a decrease in the amplitude of the hyperpolarizing

spike after-potential recorded from hippocampal

pyramidal cells

(2) an inhibition of hippocampal pyramidal cell activity

during the presentation of the unconditioned stimulus

(3) an increase in the discharge rate of hippocampal

pyramidal cells during the presentation of conditioned

stimulus

(4) an enhancement of the frequency of slow EPSPs recorded

from basket cells

59. Limbic projections to structures with probable motor

functions include the

(1) nucleus accumbens septi

(2) ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

(3) ventral pallidum

(4) cerebellum

FOR EACH OF THE NUMBERED ITEMS IN THIS SECTION, ONE OR MORE OF

THE NUMBERED OPTIONS IS CORRECT. ON THE ANSWER SHEET, FILL IN

THE CIRCLE CONTAINING

A if only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B if only 1 and 3 are correct

C if only 2 and 4 are correct

D if only 4 is correct

E if all are correct

60. Retrograde amnesia

(1) involves deficits in memory retrieval

(2) can be eliminated by tests of free recall

(3) involves a difficulty in processing new information

into a more-enduring form

(4) can be produced by head injury

61. Stage 4 sleep is characterized by

(1) delta waves

(2) a desynchronized EEG

(3) relaxed muscles

(4) increased blood pressure

62. The ascending reticular activating system

(1) projects to midline and intralaminar thalamic nuclei

(2) is responsible for maintaining conscious arousal

(3) projects to the thalamus in the central tegmental tract

(4) can be inhibited by stimulating sleep inducing areas in

the pons and medulla

63. Hippocampal pyramidal cells exhibit

(1) large amplitude IPSPs

(2) spatially segregated synaptic input

(3) spike activity that is generated in bursts

(4) large hyperpolarizing spike after-potentials

Neuro final practical

tectospinal tract substantia gelatinosa

dorsal medial lateral olfactory tract

Ventral anterior mammalothalamic tract

postcentral gyrus vestibular cochlear nerve

nodulus satiaty

lateral geniculate body paraventricular nucleus

vertebral art. parahippocampal gyrus

inferior olivary complex genu of corpus callosum

increase heart rate anterior choroidal art.

lateral sulcus precommisural fornix

uncrossed produce CSF

intrinsic muscles of tongue trochlear nucleus

K& F long circumferential branch

ipselateral paralysis and contra hemiplasia no change

corticospinal tract unilateral

motor spinotrigeminal nucleus

pulvinar tuberoinfundibular tract

auditory gustatory and visceral

lateral lemniscus cingulate gyrus

VPL nucleus accumbens septi

nucleus solitary anterior commisure

motor trig. nucleus medial forebrain bundle

muscles of mastication anterior thalamic nucleus

loss of lateral eye movement amygdala

superior oblique muscle hearing

extraocular muscles fornix (body)

cuneate fasciculus

dorsal nucleus of clark

vestibular

ANSWERS:

  1. A
  2. A
  3. C
  4. C
  5. C
  6. B
  7. E
  8. B
  9. B
  10. C
  11. E
  12. C
  13. A
  14. A
  15. C
  16. E
  17. B
  18. D
  19. C
  20. D
  21. E
  22. A
  23. B
  24. E
  25. A
  26. B
  27. E
  28. C
  29. E
  30. B
  31. D
  32. D
  33. B
  34. A
  35. C
  36. E
  37. B
  38. A
  39. B
  40. E
  41. E
  42. D
  43. B
  44. D
  45. D
  46. C
  47. D
  48. E
  49. A
  50. E
  51. A
  52. E
  53. E
  54. E
  55. B
  56. E
  57. B
  58. B
  59. B
  60. D
  61. B
  62. E
  63. A