1. Animal models of immunodeficiency

  1. Can be used to determine the effect of a single gene disruption on specific immune functions
  2. Can be used to produce an animal in which cancer cells can be grown
  3. Can have the same fundamental genetic defect as human forms of immunodeficiency
  4. Can have increases in some forms of neoplasia
  5. All of the above

2. Complement deficiency

  1. Results in a decrease in CD4+ cells
  2. Has no serious effects on immune function because other immune mechanisms can substitute for this deficiency.
  3. Causes an increase in the incidence of neoplasia
  4. Can result in increased susceptibility to bacterial infection.
  5. None of the above

3. Immunodeficiency can result from

  1. Nutritional deficits
  2. Exposure to toxic chemicals
  3. Irradiation
  4. Primary gene defects
  5. All of the above

4. The primary cellular targets of the HIV-1 virus are the

  1. CD45 positive cells
  2. CD8 positive cells
  3. CD4 positive cells
  4. CD19 positive cells
  5. None of the above

5. What evidence shows that transplant tissue rejection is an immunological phenomenon?

a. Serum proteins are needed to glue transplanted skin to the graft site

b. Transplanted kidneys must be placed in anatomically correct locations for proper function to occur.

c. Treatment with injected IL-2 can initiate a cytokine storm

d. Prior transplantation with tissue from the same allogeneic source will elicit a second set rejection.

e. All of the above

6. Which of the following therapies would NOT be likely to enhance graft survival in graft recipients?

  1. Total lymphoid irradiation
  2. Immunosuppressive drugs
  3. Elimination of passenger leukocytes from the transplanted tissue
  4. Blocking monoclonal antibodies (against IL-2R, for example)
  5. Adjuvant therapy

7. Immunologically privileged sites are

  1. Sites where autoimmune responses are beneficial
  2. Sites where transplanted tissue will not engender a rejection reaction
  3. Sites where the immune response does not activate complement
  4. Sites where an allograft will not survive
  5. Sites where immunoglobulin gene rearrangement occurs

8. Apoptosis ordinarily serves to prevent the development of an autoimmune response to the dying cells. This is because:

  1. The apoptosis of macrophages will limit their ability to present antigen
  2. Apoptotic cell death eliminates the inter-digital tissues in the hands of the fetus
  3. Apoptosis prevents the release of immunogenic intracellular antigens that would promote inflammation.
  4. Antibodies to the Fas ligand and receptor are formed
  5. Necrosis follows the apoptotic process

9. HIV is an RNA virus. The HIV genome encodes the formation of which of these proteins?

  1. GP120
  2. GP120 antibody
  3. CCR5
  4. CXCR4
  5. Both a and c

10. A patient with a MHC class II deficiency (an example is the Bare Lymphocyte syndrome)

  1. Will experience decreased viral susceptibility
  2. Will have an excess of activated complement that binds to MHC class II+ cells
  3. Will experience declines in Th/APC interactions and a resulting immunodeficiency
  4. Will develop an autoimmune disease called Bare Lymphocyte Adenopathy (BLA)
  5. Will have decreased insulin levels

11. Antibody-drug conjugates are valuable therapeutics for the treatment of cancer because

  1. They kill antibody producing cells
  2. They can specifically target tumor antigen-expressing cells, reducing the necessary concentration of toxin to be used.
  3. They are less expensive than conventional antibodies
  4. They do not bind neoplastic cells.
  5. All of the above

12. Xenogeneic grafts

  1. Can survive in most individuals
  2. Are readily rejected by immunocompetent individuals
  3. Are grafts between individuals of the same species
  4. Are skin graft exchanges to the same site on donor and recipient
  5. All of the above

13. Tasmanian devils can horizontally transmit an oral tumor from one devil to another through bites. The cellular exchange from the donor devil successfully grows in the recipient devil due to:

  1. The composition of Tasmanian devil DNA, which allows for tumor DNA to easily be transmitted into the recipient devil.
  2. The bites on the face of the devils increases the likelihood of infection, and often the uptake of the virus that transmits the cancer
  3. The genetic predisposition of Tasmanian devils to cancer
  4. The limited MHC polymorphism in Tasmanian devils
  5. Both B and C

14. RNA dependent DNA Polymerase is used to

  1. Excise viral DNA from host DNA
  2. Transcribe mRNA to cDNA
  3. Translate cDNA to protein
  4. Transcribe cDNA to mRNA
  5. None of the above
  1. The Ames Assay can be used to detect mutations caused by chemicals that
  2. Cause genome-wide deletions
  3. Cause changes similar to those found in teratocarcinomas
  4. Induce mutations in Salmonella typhimurium that result in histidine operon reversions
  5. Are known to be carcinogenic
  6. None of the above

16. Proto-oncogenes are

a. Mutations in the genes for immunoglobulins

b. The normal forms of genes that can mutate in ways that elicit cancer formation

c. The prototypes of CD45 molecules

d. The genes found in early evolution that produce the complement-like proteins

e. All of the above

17. There are naturally occurring camel and llama antibodies that are

a. Covalently bound to Ricin A and B chains

b. Single chain antibodies

c. Able to differentiate structures at a sub-atomic level

d. Able to withstand elevated temperatures and other denaturing conditions

e. Naturally found in shampoos

18. Neoplasia requires that cells develop the capacity to exceed the Hayflick limit. One way to do this is by increasing the level of an enzyme that maintains chromosome stability. This enzyme is

a. Caspase

b. Aspartame

c. Telomerase

d. Invertase

e. DNAse

19. A number of specific mutations can cause primary immunodeficiencies in mice and humans. One example in humans specifically leads to a defect in the normal development of the thymus and produces an immunodeficiency similar to the nude mouse. The resulting phenotype is a defect in T cell maturation and subsequently T-dependent acquired immunity. This mutation in humans is commonly called

a. DiGeorge syndrome

b. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

c. SCID

d. albino

e. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome

20. Ricin is a product of the castor bean plant that can kill cells

a. By the effect of Ricin B subunit to activate the membrane attack complex of the complement cascade

b. By the effect of the lethal factor encoded by a plasmid

c. By the activation of CTL specific for the Ricin B bound to the plasma membrane

d. By the change in osmotic pressure when the cells are put in saline solution

e. By the cleavage of ribosomal RNA in the 60s subunit

21. The goal of conjugating radionuclides such as 131I (Iodine-131) to anti-tumor antibodies is to

a. Irradiate the tumor and selectively kill those tumor cells in the patient's body

b. Chemically change the antibodies to make them less stable

c. Enhance the complement cascade by radiation-induced mutations of the C3b component

d. Produce toxic radioactive decay products to poison the tumor cells

e. All of the above (a-d)

22. The practical problem with using injections of IL-2 cytokine to stimulate an anti-cancer response is that

a. It is impossible to inject IL-2 because it provokes antibody responses

b. It is too expensive to produce enough cytokine

c. It stimulates complement activation

d. It can provoke a systemic cytokine storm

e. It induces global apoptosis

23. Which of these sites is considered "immunologically priviledged"?

a. Bone marrow

b. Thymus

c. Locations in the eye

d. The gastrointestinal tract

e. The draining lymph nodes

24. Scientists think that the levels of MHC polymorphism are so high in most vertebrate species because

a. Recombination rates are higher in this part of the genome

b. There are error prone recombinases that generate polymorphisms in each generation

c. This provides population diversity that prevents all individuals from being equally susceptible to each infection

d. There are many horizontally infectious tumors that are known to exist

e. The diversity encourages outbreeding within the species

26. Agents that cause mutation are often carcinogens. Why?

  1. Mutations in a gene responsible for cell cycle regulation can increase the rate of secondary mutations in the cells
  2. Mutations in a gene responsible for chromosome length and stability can eliminate the Hayflick limit for that cell.
  3. Mutations can eliminate a cell’s sensitivity to contact inhibition signals
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

27. The demonstration that there was little polymorphism in the Tasmanian devil population included what measurements?

  1. Measurements of size and weight to show there was little difference between devils
  2. Assessment of the allotypes of antibodies in individual devils to show that they were the same
  3. 2-way Mixed lymphocyte reactions to show devil similarity
  4. Sequencing of the T cell receptors of Tasmanian devils showed a single V chain
  5. Demonstration that there was no agglutination of one devil’s blood with another devil’s serum

28. Which of the following is generally NOT commonly employed to detect an active HIV infection or previous exposure to the HIV virus?

a. Western blot for GP120 viral antigen

b. Ames assay

c. ELISA for GP120 viral antigen

d. ELISA for serum anti-GP120 antibodies

e. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

29. Teratocarcinomas have cells that are part of many different cell lineages as well as cells that can act as stem cells. How will these E.C. stem cells behave when injected into a blastocyst?

  1. They will produce more teratocarcinomas.
  2. They will initiate an allograft rejection if they are derived from a strain different from the recipient blastocyst.
  3. They will differentiate along normal pathways and will become normal tissue cells of the chimeric offspring.
  4. They will mutate and cause a new tumor to form.
  5. None of the above

30. Anti-idiotypic treatments can be used to stimulate

a. The formation of an immune response to a tumor antigenic shape that is similar to the shape of the cognate idiotype

b. The abnormal rearrangement of the immunoglobulin gene complex

c. Angiogenesis

d. Global decreases in IgGisotype production

e. All of the above

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