BI 200 - Exam #2Name

Fall 2002Lab Section. Seat#

Disclaimer

Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple choice). You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit, you may receive partial or full credit. Questions are 1 point each unless indicated.

Multiple Choice - 2 points each

1. Which of these is a macromolecule?

a. cysteine

b. glycogen

c. nitrogen

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

2. Which of these is a macronutrient?

a. cysteine

b. glycogen

c. nitrogen

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

3. What is the oxidation number of the phosphorous atom in phosphoric acid, H3PO4?

a. -5b. -2c. 0d. +2e. +5

4. What is the oxidation number of the carbon atoms in acetaldehyde, CH3CHO?

a. -1b. -1/2c. 0d. +1/2e. +1

5. The tetrapyrole porphoryn group of a cytochrome would best be characterized as

a. cofactor

b. trace element

c. prosthetic group

d. micronutrient

e. Vitamin C

6. Which of the following statements is (are) true?

a. Fimbriae are generally longer than pili

b. Fimbriae are not made of protein

c. Fimbriae function in surface adhesion

d. all of the above

7. Glycogen granules

a. are derived directly from PHB

b. function as a storage depot for carbon and energy

c. are made of protein

d. help bacteria evade the immune system

8. Endospores are

a. bacterial reproductive structures

b. metabolically inactive

c. sensitive to temperature

d. all of the above

9. A major function of prokaryotic gas vesicles is

a. to provide buoyancy for the organism

b. to serve as a reservoir for oxygen and carbon dioxide gas

c. promote conjugation between male and female bacteria

d. help bacteria evade the immune system

10. Which of the following are composed of protein?

a. PHB

b. S-layer

c. sulfur granules

d. magnetosomes

11. Biosynthesis of new cell material is called

a. metabolism

b. anabolism

c. catabolism

d. synthatabolism

12. In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference in reduction potentials between the

a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor

b. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor

c. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor

a. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor

13. NADH is the most important ______carrying molecule in the cell, while ______is the most important energy high energy phosphate compound in living organisms

a. carbon ; CoA

b. electron ; ATP

c. energy; glucose

d. none of the above is correct

14. The oxidation of the six carbon atoms in glucose, C6H12O6, to 6 CO2 involves the transfer of _____ electrons to 6 O2.

a. 0b. 6c. 12d. 24

15. The portion of the enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as the ______, and the enzyme will ______the activation energy required to make the reaction proceed.

a. active site; raise

b. active site; lower

c. active site; not change

d. none of the above, the change in activation energy is not predictable

16. Which best describes the reason that fermenting organisms carry out reactions which reduce pyruvate?

(a) Pyruvate is toxic to cells.

(b) ATP is synthesized in the reductive stage III

(c) Oxygen must be consumed in fermentation

(d) It is an unregulated reaction of no value.

(e) Cells must regenerate oxidized NAD.

17. Which of the following is not a high-energy intermediate of glycolysis?

a. phophoenolpyruvate

b. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate

c. succinyl-CoA

d. all of the above – none occur in glycolysis

e. a, b,c – none are high energy intermediates

18. The net ATP production during glycolysis is

a. 0b. 4c. 2d. 36-38

19. Regarding the fermentation of sugars like glucose or lactose to lactic acid, which statement is not true?

a. The process is involved in the production of dairy products like cheese and yogurt

b. The unique enzyme is lactate dehydrogenase

c. It can be carried out by yeast like Saccharomyces cerevisiae

d. none of the above, all are true

20. Which of the following fermentation products contains substantial chemical bond energy?

a. H2b. ethanolc. lactated. all of the above

21. During aerobic respiration oxygen is consumed during

a. glycolysis

b. the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)

c. electron transport phosphorylation – electron transport chain plus ATPase

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

22. During aerobic respiration ATP is produced during

a. glycolysis

b. the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)

c. electron transport phosphorylation – electron transport chain plus ATPase

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

23. In eukaryotic mitochondria enzymes of the Krebs cycle are found in the ______and components of the electron transport chain are associated with the ______.

a. cristae; matrix

b. cytoplasm; cristae

c. matrix; cristae

d. none of the above – eukaryotes don’t have mitochondria

24. In chemiosmosis (the generation of a proton gradient)

a. OH- accumulates on the outside of the membrane while H+ accumulates

b. the pH of the cytoplasm goes down

c. the inside of the cell becomes negative relative to the outside

d. ATP is formed by substrate level phosphorylation

25. Which of the following bacteria is not an obligate aerobe?

a. Pseudomonas

b. Paracoccus

c. Alcaligenes

d. Escherichia

26. Which of the following would not be involved with electron transport phosphorylation?

a. a membrane

b. ATPase

c. phosphoenolpyruvate

d. cytochrome

e. an external electron acceptor

27. Most chemolithotrophs are

a. phototrophsb. eukaryotesc. heterotrophsd. autotrophs

28. For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use such compounds as

a. carbon dioxidec. glucosec. sunlightd. H2S

29. Which do fermentation and aerobic respiration have in common?

a. Glycolysis

b. Citric acid cycle

c. Electron transport

d. ATPase

30. An organism which uses CO2 as carbon source is most properly termed

(a) a heterotroph

(b) a chemoorganotroph

(c) a lithotroph

(d) an autotroph

(e) a chemotroph

31.Anaerobic respiratory bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory organisms

a. in their substrate oxidizing pathways

b. in their electron transport chains

c. because they don’t form proton gradients

d. because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase

32. Cofactor F420 occurs in

a. fermentative yeast

b. fluorescent methanogens

c. denitrifying bacteria

d. iron-oxidizing bacteria

33. The following carry out the detrimental activity where nitrate is depleted from soil

a. denitrifying bacteria

b. nitrogen-fixing bacteria

c. nitrifying bacteria

d. enteric bacteria

34. Acetogens and methanogens are

a. strict aerobes

b. strict anaerobes

c. facultative anaerobes

d. obligate aerobes

35. Which of the following is a sulfate reducing bacterium

a. Desulfovibrio

b. Thiobacillus

c. Beggiatoa

d. Sulfolobus

e. all of the above

36. Rusticyanin occurs in

a. fermentative yeast

b. fluorescent methanogens

c. denitrifying bacteria

d. iron-oxidizing bacteria

37. Lithotrophic bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory organisms

a. in their substrate oxidizing pathways

b. in their electron transport chains

c. because they don’t form proton gradients

d. because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase

38. In most cases the final product of sulfur oxidation is

a. H2Sb. H2SO4c. Sd. could be any of these

39. The enzyme ammonium monooxygenase would be found in

a. Pseudomonas

b. Escherichia

c. Azotobacter

d. Nitrosomonas

e. Nitrobacter

40. 2 free points

Matching. Place the name of one of the microbes on the right that fits the description on the left. You may use a name more than once, but place only one answer in each – no multiple guesses.

41. ______

Any spore forming bacteria

42. ______

Any obligate aerobe

43. ______

Any lactic acid fermenter

44. ______

Any lithotroph

45. ______

Any organism that uses H2 as fuel

46. ______

Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrite (NO2-)

47. ______

Oxidizes ammonia (NH3) to nitrite (NO2-)

48. ______

Any archea

49. ______

Reduces ferric iron

50. ______

Sulfur-oxidizing bacteria

Alcalignenes

Aquaspirillum

Aquifex

Bacillus

Beggiatoa

Clostridium

Desulfovibrio

Escherichia

Gallionella

Geobacter

Hydrogenobacter

Lactobacillus

Leptothrix

Methanosarcina

Nitrobacter

Nitrosomonas

Paracoccus

Pseudomonas

Saccharomyces

Shewanella

Streptococcus

Sulfolobus

Thiobacillus

Zymomonas

Matching. Place the name of one of the microbes on the right that fits the description on the left. You may use a name more than once, but place only one answer in each – no multiple guesses.

41. ______

Any spore forming bacterium

42. ______

Any obligate anaerobe

43. ______

Any ethanol fermenter

44. ______

Any anaerobic respiratory bacterium

45. ______

Any organism that uses H2 as fuel

46. ______

Reduces nitrate (NO3-) to nitrogen gas (N2)

47. ______

Oxidizes nitrite (NO2-) to nitrate (NO3-)

48. ______

Any archea

49. ______

Oxidizes ferrous iron

50. ______

Sulfate-reducing bacteria

Alcalignenes

Aquaspirillum

Aquifex

Bacillus

Beggiatoa

Clostridium

Desulfovibrio

Escherichia

Gallionella

Geobacter

Hydrogenobacter

Lactobacillus

Leptothrix

Methanosarcina

Nitrobacter

Nitrosomonas

Paracoccus

Pseudomonas

Saccharomyces

Shewanella

Streptococcus

Sulfolobus

Thiobacillus

Zymomonas

Interpreting experiments

In a diagnostic kit for streptococcal pneumoniae, antibodies that attach to the surface of Streptococcus pneumoniae are attached to a membrane