Evolution & Diversity Section One Exam

Bio 1010C Evolution & Diversity Section One Exam

1. / Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization within an organism?
A. / Molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell
B. / Cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule
C. / Organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell
D. / Atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue
E. / Atom - organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
2. / Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization occurring beyond the individual?
A. / Population - ecosystem - community - biosphere
B. / Community - population - ecosystem - biosphere
C. / Population - community - ecosystem - biosphere
D. / Community - population - biosphere - ecosystem
E. / Ecosystem - population - biosphere - community
3. / To be considered a living organism, the organism must consist of:
A. / One or more cells
B. / DNA and proteins
C. / RNA and proteins
D. / Atoms and molecules
E. / DNA and RNA
4. / Which is not a major characteristic of life?
A. / Homeostasis
B. / Structural organization
C. / Movement
D. / Evolution
E. / Energy use
5. / Organisms that obtain energy by eating nutrients that make up other organisms are called:
A. / Autotrophs
B. / Heterotrophs
C. / Plants
D. / Producers
E. / Both A and D are correct
6. / Organisms that extract energy from environments that never lived are called:
A. / Autotrophs
B. / Heterotrophs
C. / Decomposers
D. / Primary producers
E. / Both A and D are correct
7. / Decomposers are:
A. / Bacteria
B. / Fungi
C. / Organisms that obtain energy from wastes or dead organisms
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
8. / "The most restrictive taxon" and "the ability to breed only among themselves" reference:
A. / Members of the same domain
B. / Members of the same genus
C. / Members of the same family
D. / Members of the same kingdom
E. / Members of the same species
9. / A major difference between bacteria and archaea and all other living organisms is that bacteria and archaea:
A. / Have cell walls and other organisms do not
B. / Have a nucleus in their cells and other organisms do not
C. / Are autotrophs and other organisms are not
D. / Do not have a nucleus in their cells and other organisms do
E. / Do not have cell walls and other organisms do
10. / Which of the following is not true about a hypothesis?
A. / It can be proven to be false
B. / It can be proven to be true
C. / It is a tentative explanation
D. / It is based on previous knowledge
E. / It must be testable to be useful
11. / A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory:
A. / Has more supportive evidence than a hypothesis
B. / Is broader in scope than a hypothesis
C. / Ties together many existing observations
D. / Has predictive power
E. / All of the above are correct
12. / Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that:
A. / Asexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring
B. / Asexual reproduction uses DNA to code for traits in offspring
C. / Asexual reproduction occurs only in bacteria
D. / Asexual reproduction does not occur in animals
E. / Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are virtually identical
13. / Which of the following is not a true statement about the scientific method?
A. / It is a general way of organizing an investigation
B. / It is a framework to consider ideas in a repeatable way
C. / It begins with observations
D. / It does not apply to problems encountered in every day life
E. / It is a framework to consider evidence in a repeatable way
14. / The scientific study of life is called:
A. / Biology
B. / Chemistry
C. / Genomics
D. / Proteomics
E. / Genetics
15. / All ecosystems:
A. / Once mature never change
B. / Are entirely self-sufficient
C. / Need a continuous outside energy source
D. / Consist of only living organisms
E. / None of the above are correct
16. / Which is a correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
A. / Observation - form hypothesis - draw conclusions - design an experiment
B. / Observation - draw conclusion - design an experiment - form hypothesis
C. / Form hypothesis - observation - design an experiment - collect data
D. / Observation - form hypothesis - design an experiment - collect data
E. / Form hypothesis - observation - collect data - design an experiment
17. / Antibiotic resistance is becoming more common in disease-causing bacteria because:
A. / Antibiotics are used in feed for livestock
B. / Antibiotics are sometimes prescribed for viral infections (due to pressure from patients)
C. / Some patients do not take the antibiotics as directed
D. / Antibiotics are used to treat infections in cattle, chickens and other animals used for agricultural purposes
E. / All of the above are correct
18. / Genetic change in a population over time defines which of the following?
A. / Heredity
B. / Mitosis
C. / Evolution
D. / Phenotype
E. / Genotype
19. / Convergent evolution means:
A. / Different organisms will never have similar traits
B. / That different lineages may independently evolvesimilar traits
C. / That organisms living in similar habitats may develop similar traits even though they are not related
D. / Both B and C are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
20. / The French taxonomist, who in 1809 suggested that organisms that use one part of their body repeatedly would increase their abilities and pass it on to their children by the "inheritance of acquired characteristics" was:
A. / Charles Darwin
B. / James Hutton
C. / Jean Lamarck
D. / Georges Buffon
E. / Charles Lyell
21. / The scientist who went to the Galapagos Islands on the Beagle and later published "On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection" in 1859 was:
A. / Charles Darwin
B. / James Hutton
C. / Jean Lamarck
D. / Georges Buffon
E. / Charles Lyell
22. / Most of the notes and samples that would serve as the seed of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection were obtained during a month-long stay at:
A. / The New Hebrides Islands
B. / The Galapagos Islands
C. / The Hawaiian Islands
D. / The Sandwich Islands
E. / Pitcairn Island
23. / A gradual change from an ancestral type was referred to by Darwin as:
A. / Uniformitarianism
B. / Catastrophism
C. / Descent with modification
D. / Convergent evolution
E. / Principle of superposition
24. / According to Darwin, natural selection usually:
A. / Preserves favorable variations in a population
B. / Rejects harmful variations in a population
C. / Neither preserves nor rejects harmful variations in a population
D. / Both A and B are correct
E. / Both A and C are correct
25. / Which of the following is not a plant selectively bredfrom the wild mustard plant?
A. / Broccoli
B. / Cauliflower
C. / Kale
D. / Cabbage
E. / None of the above are correct
26. / The relatively short term changes in allele frequencies within a species or population is:
A. / Microevolution
B. / Convergent evolution
C. / Artificial selection
D. / Natural selection
E. / The principle of superposition
27. / Which of the following is (are) observations of nature made by Darwin?
A. / Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited
B. / More individuals of a population are born than survive to reproduce
C. / Individuals compete with one another for limited resources that enable them to survive
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
28. / Darwin concluded from his observations of nature that:
A. / The inherited characteristics of some members of a population make them more likely to survive to reproductive age
B. / Since the environment selects against adaptive traits, only those with nonadaptive traits live long enough to reproduce
C. / That because the environment selects for adaptive traits, only those with adaptive traits live long enough to reproduce
D. / Since the environment selects for nonadaptive traits, only those with nonadaptive traits live long enough to reproduce
E. / Both A and C are correct
29. / The entire collection of genes and their alleles is a population's:
A. / Genotype
B. / Gene pool
C. / Phenotype
D. / Dominant traits
E. / Recessive traits
30. / An individual's phenotype is:
A. / Its observable properties
B. / The action of single and/or multiple genes
C. / Usually influenced by environment
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
31. / The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects against the others is:
A. / Directive selection
B. / Disruptive selection
C. / Stabilizing selection
D. / Artificial selection
E. / Convergent selection
32. / The mode of natural selection in which extreme phenotypes are less fit than the optimal intermediate phenotype is:
A. / Directive selection
B. / Disruptive selection
C. / Stabilizing selection
D. / Artificial selection
E. / Convergent selection
33. / "Balanced polymorphism," also known as "heterozygote advantage" means that:
A. / Multiple alleles of a gene persist indefinitely in a population due to selection
B. / Many genes that affect the same trait persist indefinitely in a population
C. / Only a dominant and recessive allele exist for each trait in a population
D. / Many traits persist in a population that are controlled by only a single allele
E. / None of the above are correct
34. / Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium occurs only in populations that meet which of the following requirements?
A. / Mutations do not occur
B. / Individuals mate at random
C. / Natural selection does not occur
D. / A and B are correct, but C is incorrect
E. / A, B and C are correct
35. / At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
A. / Allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next
B. / Allele frequencies change from one generation to the next
C. / Evolution does not occur — it is the null hypothisis
D. / Both A and C are correct
E. / Both B and C are correct
36. / A cigarette smoker with lung cancer will not pass-on any smoking-induced lung cancer mutations if he haschildren because:
A. / The smoking-induced mutations are in somatic cells
B. / The smoking-induced mutations are not in germ cells
C. / The smoking-induced mutations are not in gametes
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
37. / Alleles conferring red plumage to cardinal males are common because:
A. / Of sexual selection
B. / Red plumage makes males more susceptible to predation
C. / Red plumage is preferred by female cardinals in regards to choosing a mate
D. / Both A and B are correct
E. / Both A and C are correct
38. / Sexually dimorphic features do not include:
A. / Colored plumage
B. / Structures such as horns
C. / Lack of intelligence
D. / Body size
E. / None of the above are correct
39. / Founder and bottleneck effects:
A. / Can have extreme consequences due togenetic drift.
B. / Can occur when small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements.
C. / Can occur when many members of a population die.
D. / Often result in a great loss of genetic diversity, but can lead to adaptive radiation.
E. / All are correct.
40. / The process by which new species originate:
A. / Is extinction
B. / Occurred only once in Earth's history
C. / Is germination
D. / Is speciation
E. / Occurred for millions of years but is no longer occurring
41. / The process by which species cease to exist:
A. / Has never occurred
B. / Is speciation
C. / Is extinction
D. / Is occurring today at a faster rate than ever before
E. / None of the above are correct
42. / Islands provide ideal opportunities to study speciation because:
A. / They often have small land areas that make it relatively easy to monitor their populations
B. / Organisms can easily move onto and off of islands
C. / Few organisms can cross long distances across oceans to reach isolated islands
D. / Both A and B are correct
E. / Both A and C are correct
43. / The types of living organisms on Earth have changed over time, new species have originated and existing species have disappeared. The term that best describes this ever changing panorama of life is:
A. / Speciation
B. / Macroevolution
C. / Extinction
D. / Alternation of generations
E. / Hybridization
44. / Ernst Mayr defined a biological species as:
A. / A group of closely related organisms
B. / A population, whose members can interbreed
C. / A population or group of populations that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
D. / A group of organisms that live in the same ecosystem, that can interbreed and produce offspring
E. / All of the above are correct
45. / Which of the following is not a type of prezygotic reproductive isolation?
A. / Hybrid infertility
B. / Temporal isolation
C. / Gametic isolation
D. / Ecological isolation
E. / Mechanical isolation
46. / The type of reproductive isolation in which two populations live in the same habitat but remain isolated from one another due to one being active during the daytime only and the other being active only during the night is:
A. / Behavioral isolation
B. / Temporal isolation
C. / Gametic isolation
D. / Mechanical isolation
E. / None of the above are correct
47. / The type of reproductive isolation in which offspring are infertile because their chromosomes cannot align correctly during meiosis because of a different number of chromosomes being inherited from the two parents is:
A. / Gametic isolation
B. / Mechanical isolation
C. / Hybrid infertility
D. / Hybrid inviability
E. / Temporal isolation
48. / Zebroids, mules and ligers are all:
A. / Capable of producing fertile offspring
B. / Incapable of producing fertile offspring
C. / Hybrids
D. / Both A and B are correct
E. / Both B and C are correct
49. / The spatial arrangements that may help cause speciation are:
A. / Allopatric, allopathic and allelopathy
B. / Paraplegic, parapatric and paralegal
C. / Sympathetic, symphonic and sympatric
D. / Sympatric, parapatric and allopatric
E. / Allopathic, paraplegic and sympathetic
50. / Polyploid means:
A. / Having three or more sets of chromosomes
B. / Having only one set of chromosomes
C. / Having three or more chromosomes
D. / Having an abnormal number of one particular chromosome
E. / Having an abnormal number of two or more individual chromosomes
51. / Polyploidy is:
A. / Common in both plant and animal species
B. / Common in animal species
C. / Common in plant species
D. / Common only in bacteria
E. / None of the above are correct
52. / The idea that evolution proceeds in small, incremental changes over many generations is:
A. / Temporal isolation
B. / Punctuated equilibrium
C. / Catastrophism
D. / Gradualism
E. / Temporal equilibrium
53. / The idea that evolution proceeds with long periods of stasis with relatively brief bursts of fast evolutionary change is:
A. / Temporal isolation
B. / Punctuated equilibrium
C. / Catastrophism
D. / Gradualism
E. / Temporal equilibrium
54. / Adaptive radiation might occur due to:
A. / New colonization of an isolated habitat
B. / Some members of a population inheriting a structure or ability that gives them a survival advantage
C. / Some members of a population have adaptations that enable them to survive a major environmental change
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
55. / Extinction of a species may be due to:
A. / Human intervention
B. / Introduction of a new predator
C. / A matter of "bad luck"
D. / Loss of habitat
E. / All of the above are correct
56. / Mass extinctions:
A. / Have never occurred
B. / Have periodically opened vast new habitats for adaptive radiation to occur
C. / May have been caused by the impact of a large meteorite or comet with Earth
D. / Both B and C are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
57. / The impact of a large meteorite, comet, or asteroidwith Earth would have most likely caused mass extinctions by:
A. / Creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight
B. / Causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature
C. / Destroying plant life on Earth
D. / Both A and C are correct
E. / Both B and C are correct
58. / Today an alarming increase in the background extinction rate is occurring for many types of organisms due to:
A. / Human intervention
B. / Global warming
C. / Loss of habitat
D. / Both A and B are correct
E. / Both A and C are correct
59. / Phylogenies are:
A. / Charts that show the presence or absence of disease in families
B. / Evolutionary trees
C. / Depict species' relationships based on descent from shared ancestors
D. / Both A and B are correct
E. / Both B and C are correct
60. / Within the last several centuries extinctions of species have occurred in:
A. / Plants and only mammals in the animal kingdom
B. / Plants and only birds and fish in the animal kingdom
C. / All kingdoms of animals, but not plants
D. / Only lower life forms such as bacteria
E. / None of the above are correct
61. / The discovery of a fossile Archaeopteryx in 1860 led to the beginning of the hypothesis of birds being closely related to:
A. / Butterflies
B. / Salamanders
C. / Dinosaurs
D. / Bats
E. / None of the above are correct
62. / The type of evidence (studies) providing support for evolution include:
A. / Molecular evidence
B. / Fossil evidence
C. / Biogeographical evidence
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / Only B and C are correct
63. / Fossils may be:
A. / From impressions left after an organism decays
B. / Formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals, turning to stone
C. / Formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen
D. / Casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone
E. / All of the above are correct
64. / Petrification occurs:
A. / When minerals replace the organic material left by a decaying organism
B. / When a leaf sinks into water and fine sediment covers the leaf and compresses
C. / When the imprint of an animal fills with mud, that later hardens to rock
D. / When a whole organism is trapped in a plant resin
E. / All of the above are correct
65. / The fossil record is in many cases incomplete because:
A. / The vast majority of organisms never left a fossil trace
B. / Many organisms rapidly decomposed after death
C. / Many organisms were eaten after death
D. / Many fossils are never discovered because of their location (buried deep in the earth)
E. / All of the above are correct
66. / Relative dating:
A. / Is usually based on the principle of superposition
B. / Uses radioactive carbon to estimate how old a fossil is
C. / Uses the depth of fossils within rock layers and the depth of fossils in relation to other fossils within rock layers to estimate how old a fossil is
D. / Both A and C are correct
E. / All of the above are correct
67. / Absolute dating:
A. / Is usually based on the principle of superposition
B. / Uses the depth of fossils within rock layers and the depth of fossils in relation to other fossils within rock layers to estimate how old a fossil is
C. / Uses radioactive isotopes to estimate how old a fossil is
D. / Both A and B are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
68. / Each radioactive isotope:
A. / Emits radiation as it decays
B. / Has its own specific half-life
C. / Decays at an unchangeable and characteristic rate
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
69. / It is theorized that the Himalayan Mountains were formed:
A. / Because of Earth's shifting continents
B. / Because the Indo-Australian plate collided with the Eurasian plate
C. / Because of the principles of plate tectonics
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
70. / When Pangaea broke apart, it formed:
A. / Two continents
B. / Gondwana
C. / Laurasia
D. / All of the above are correct
E. / None of the above are correct
71. / Marsupials are mammals that:
A. / Lay eggs
B. / Carry their young in a pouch
C. / Are very common in Australia
D. / Both A and C are correct
E. / Both B and C are correct
72. / If similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect common ancestry, these structures are: