RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGY STUDY QUESTIONS RTEC 244 REVISED FALL 2010 pg 1

  1. Technique Problems – changes in mas, kvp, SID, grid ratio, screen speed etc
  2. Which type of lead equivalent shielding would provide the best protection?
  3. What is meant by the acronym of ALARA?
  4. devices may be located on the typical x-ray unit control panel
  5. alternating current is changed to unidirectional current by the:
  6. The volt is related to potential differences as the ampere is related to:
  7. x-ray circuit is a step-down transformer located?
  8. A film that shows excessive density may be due to:
  9. Radiation that passes through the tube housing is called?
  10. circuit devices locations
  11. The brightness level of the fluoro image can vary with:
  12. Grid Errors
  13. Using an (AED),who is image overexposed
  14. Heat Units, Charts and Anode Cooling charts - review
  15. voltage ripples for different phase equipm,ent
  16. Problems using Formulas for circuitry, ohms law, transformer law
  17. Which of the two films represented on the H&D chart show what type of slopes?
  18. Recognize diagrams for interactions of xray tube
  19. Diagrams of circuits and the x-ray tube
  20. Chart for response to radiation dose:
  21. The function of PACS system
  22. radiographer selects kVp which device is adjusted on circuit board
  23. what must be selected by the radiographer when using the automatic exposure control?
  24. Formulas for patient dose, inverse square law, mas density laws
  25. The response plotted on the characteristic curve of the CR imaging plate
  26. FLUORO FORMULAS : BG, MAGMINI GAIN, PT DOSE FOR MAG, ETC
  27. Which technical factors will give the longest scale of contrast?
  28. The size of the focal spot has a direct effect upon;
  29. Shape distortion will most likely be caused by?
  30. In CR Radiography, information is acquired through what type of conversion?
  31. Basic artifacts for film and CR
  32. Which systems, organs and cells are MOST SENSITIVE to ionizing radiation?
  33. forms of x-radiation should the radiographer NEVER receive?
  34. Which x-ray interaction with matter predominates in soft tissue above 80 kvp?
  35. What is the minimum source to skin distance for a mobile (portable) x-ray fluoro unit?
  36. Which type of x-ray unit permits dynamic (studies in motion) imaging?
  37. type of switches used for mobile x-ray equipment exposures? (Rad and Fluoroscopic)
  38. The unit of measurement for Radiation
  39. The most widely used personnel monitoring device – which is changed monthly - is a___?
  40. x-ray generators
  41. The _ is the modifying unit used to adjust the effect of different types of ionizing radiation
  42. ABS is designed to compensate for
  43. Composition of Image Intensifiers
  44. Early signs of acute radiation syndrome include:
  45. Calculate the mr/mas?
  46. Which of the image recording systems can cause the highest dose to the patient?
  47. Most laser film must be loaded in the darkroom with which type of safelight?
  48. Creating or converting radiographic images into a digital format can be accomplished by:
  49. Proper care of leaded aprons include:
  50. single phase room verses three phase – changes in technique needed
  51. X-ray emitted from areas of the anode disk other than the focal spot are called;
  52. A minimum % change in mas is needed to see a visible difference in the density.
  53. Which of the following would cause white (minus density) or dark artifacts on the film?
  54. What adjustments used for OID SID SOD Magnification, Detail , Distortion
  55. The principle advantage of rare earth intensifying screens over calcium tungstate is
  56. Elongation and foreshortening are examples of:
  57. Radiographic recorded detail is directly related to:
  58. Which of the following chemicals is used in the production of radiographic film emulsion?
  59. ratio grids / grid cut off / grid lattitude
  60. Recorded detail is ____
  61. Silver Recovery - 3 types
  62. The device that is used to measure the level of blackening
  63. If x-radiation interacts with and ionizes a water molecule
  64. Name the Federal regulatory agencies
  65. If 3 grams of tissue absorb 300 ergs ? gram/rad?
  66. The output intensity of a fluoroscopy tube is measured in:
  67. Which makes the most significant geometric contribution to image quality?
  68. Another term for focal spot blur is
  69. The process of “window leveling / width ” of digital images determines the image
  70. The relationship between the intensity of light striking a film and the intensity of light transmitted through the film is an expression of which of the following?
  71. Types of moving grid mechanisms include
  72. Using the Nomogram Chart – calculate approximate patient dose
  73. Which of the radiation-induced conditions is likely to have the longest latency period?
  74. Which organs, cells, tissues are most radiosensitive?
  75. Which is the first stage of ACUTE Radiation Syndrome:
  76. Fluoro equipment made after 1974 with AEC
  77. Fluoro equipment made after 1974 without AEC
  78. Fluoro equipment made after 1974 with AEC- BOOST
  79. During Fluoro, for an under/ or OVER the table tube, the maximum intensity of scatter from the patient is received at a scatter angle of:
  80. For the average fluoroscopy exam , it can be assumed that the average ESE of _____ i
  81. Children exposed to large doses of radiation in the 3rd trimester may show signs of:
  82. Which of the following was used as the second measurement to exposure of ionizing radiation?
  83. It is essential to question a female patient of childbearing age regarding
  84. Primary radiation barriers must be at LEAST how high (in feet)?
  85. Technologist monitoring is only required when it is likely they will receive more than
  86. Which of the following grids provide the longest scale of contrast, lowest dose, low latitude?
  87. What is the minimum source to skin distance for a mobile (portable) x-ray unit?
  88. The main advantage of using a photospot film camera to record fluoro images instead of conventional spot film cassettes is:
  89. Biologic materials that are oxygenated (aerobic) have a ______degree of response to a given dose of radiation than those that are hypoxic
  90. The front cover of a cassette should be made with ______
  91. What is (are) the major effects of DNA irradiation?
  92. If R is received as a whole-body dose in a short period of time, symptoms that occur are c
  93. Using a fixed kvp , variable mas chart, for each 5 cm increase in patient thickness needs what adjustment in technique?
  94. Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a increase in exposure factors?
  95. intensity of scatter radiation 1 meter from the patient is ____ % of the intensity
  96. the total filtration of the useful beam shall be at various kVp

RT 244 STUDY GUIDE

  1. When increasing mA station from 50 to 600 on the control panel, you are actually:
  2. Which of the following fluoroscopic recording methods result in thegreatest patient dose?
  3. Which interaction is PREDOMINANT when Barium is used for an exam?
  4. Sources of naturally occurring radiation include:
  5. Sources of secondary radiation include:
  6. The reduction of radiation intensity as it passes through material is termed:
  7. The DL (Dose Limit) for occupationally personnel is valid for:
  8. Which disorders are MOST likely to result from irradiation of 50 RADS (absorbed dose) to the fetus during the first trimester?
  9. The only personnel monitoring device that provides a PERMANENT record is a:
  10. Factors that influence the effect of exposure to ionizing radiation include ____.
  11. A protracted dose vs fractionated dose
  12. Any chromosome damage induced by radiation could be seen during the ____.
  13. The possible beneficial effect of a small amount of radiation is called ____.
  14. Two OH* free radicals can join to form ____ molecules.
  15. An indirect effect from ionizing radiation occurs on a ____ molecule.
  16. The three cardinal principles of radiation protection involve
  17. Exposure (dose) is measured by multiplying ____ by ____.
  18. Which is the first stage of ACUTE Radiation Syndrome:
  19. A “high radiation area” vs “radiation area” dose limits
  20. Approximately what percentage of the incident photons will emerge from the patient unaffected to form the radiographic image
  21. What type(s) of neoplastic disease(s) has/have manifested in humans exposed to high-levels of radiation?
  22. According to the RHB syllabus - The area of the body most susceptible to frequently occuring radiation –induced cancers are the:
  23. As shown in animal experiments, deleterious effects to the embryo may be produced with doses of as little as _____ delivered to the embryo.
  24. Why is the dose reading at a single anatomic point not expressive of the total somatic effact which may result from exposures due to radiologic examinations?
  25. Hematological depression is most likely associated with irradiation of;
  26. A strong correlation exists between the incidence of _ and the mean radiation dose received by the active bone marrow.
  27. Sperm precursors are;
  28. Practically all over exposure reports to the RHB results from:
  29. Mature spermatozoa are ______cells in the body.:
  30. Which of the following are recommended methods of reducing radiation dose to the breasts during scoliosis examinations?
  31. Which of the following is considered a typical radiation dose reduction from scattered radiation if the operator is wearing protective clothing?
  32. Which of the following is the preferred person to hold a pediatric patient?
  33. The total brightness gain of an image intensifier is a result of
  34. Which of the following meters will NOT register until the exposure is made?
  35. Wh at causes pitting, or many small surface melts, of the anode’s focal track?
  36. What will occur as a result of a decrease in the anode target angle?
  37. A steep, or small, target angle will have an effect on the
  38. Exposures less than minimum response time of an automatic exposure device may be required when
  39. Decreased x-ray tube output can be attributed to
  40. A backup timer for the automatic exposure device serves to