Chapters 8-10
BIO 137
Study Guide 3
1. Joints between the carpal bones would be names
a. Costocarpal joints
b. Intermetacarpal joints
c. Metacarpalphalangeal joints
d. Intercarpal joints
e. Intracarpal joints
2. Joints are classified according to the
a. Bones that are united at the joint
b. Structure of the joint
c. Size of the joint
d. Shape of the joint
e. Type of fluid in the joint
3. A joint that has no joint cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as
a. Fibrous joint
b. Synovial joint
c. Complex joint
d. Cartilaginous joint
e. Partial joint
4. When two bones grow together across a joint to form a single bone, this is called
a. Suture
b. Syndemosis
c. Gomphosis
d. Synostosis
e. Symphysis
5. In a syndemosis
a. There is an osseous union between the bones of the joint
b. The bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes
c. It is not unusual to find discs of cartilage
d. No movement occurs
e. There is a great range of motion
6. The joint between the teeth and he mandibular alveolus is an example of
a. Suture
b. Syndemosis
c. Gomphosis
d. Synostosis
e. Symphysis
7. Cartilaginous joints
a. Are common in the skull
b. Unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
c. Allow the most movement between bones
d. Are found in the lower leg
8. A synchondrosis
a. Is a type of gomphosis
b. Is freely movable
c. May be temporary
d. Is found in the arm
e. Is not found in a growing long bone
9. The epiphyseal plate of a growing bone is actually a temporary joint called a
a. Syncondrosis
b. Synostosis
c. Syndemosis
d. Symphysis
e. Suture
10. An example of a symphysis is the
a. Elbow joint
b. Temporomandibular joint
c. Costvertebral joint
d. Intervertebral joint
e. Sacroiliac joint
11. Most of the joints in the appendicular skeleton are ____ joints
a. Fibrous
b. Immovable
c. Synovial
d. Cartilaginous
e. Inarticulate
12. Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because
a. They use fibrous connective tissue to hold the bones in the joint together
b. They are enclosed by a joint capsule
c. They are only temporary; they are replaced in the adult
d. They generally have both bones in the joint fused together
e. They are not freely moveable
13. Hyaluronic acid
a. Contributes to the rigidity of a joint
b. Is found in the synovial membrane
c. Is responsible for the lubricating properties of synovial fluid
d. Makes up most of the matrix of the hyaline cartilage
e. Makes surfaces rough
14. Synovial fluid
a. Lacks cells
b. Is found between all boney junctions
c. Increases friction between bones
d. Is produced by articular cartilage
e. Decreases friction between bones
15. Which of the following joints is most moveable?
a. Suture
b. Syndemosis
c. Symphysis
d. Synovial
e. Synchondrosis
16. Articular cartilage
a. Attaches bones to tendons
b. Produces red blood cells
c. Forms bursal fluid
d. Covers the ends of the bones in synovial joints
e. Is formed at the epiphyseal plate
17. The function of a bursa is to
a. Provide support for a weak joint
b. Provide a fluid-filled cushion
c. Increase the articulating surface at a joint
d. Bind ligaments to bones
e. Produce fluid
18. Which of the following types of joints is mismatched with its location?
a. Saddle-thumb
b. Ball and socket-between humerus and scapula
c. Ellipsoid-between femur and tibia
d. Plane-between carpal bones
e. Hinge-cubital
19. A pivot joint
a. Is a modified ball and socket
b. Restricts movement to rotation
c. Is a biaxial joint
d. Allows gliding movement
e. Is between the atlas and the occipital bone
20. A joint that consists of two opposed flat surfaces of approximately equal size is a
a. Plane
b. Saddle
c. Hinge
d. Pivot
e. Ellipsoid
21. This type of joint is multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement
a. Saddle
b. Hinge
c. Pivot
d. Plane
e. Ball and socket
22. A biaxial joint has movement
a. Around one axis
b. Around two axes at right angles to one another
c. About several axes
d. As long as there is articular cartilage present
e. That always rotates
23. Which of the following joints is most moveable?
a. Plane
b. Saddle
c. Hinge
d. Pivot
e. Ball and socket
24. Which of the following pairs of terms are opposite?
a. Plantar flexion-dorsiflexion
b. Abduction-extension
c. Inversion-retraction
d. Pronation-rotation
e. Elevation-protraction
25. Bowing the head is an example of
a. Rotation
b. Pronation
c. Flexion
d. Lateral excursion
e. Hyperextension
26. Which of the following movements is an example of extension?
a. Bending forward at the waist
b. Kneeling
c. Raising your arm
d. Using your finger to point out an area on a map
e. Shrugging your shoulders
27. Standing on one’s toes is an example of a movement called
a. Dorsiflexion
b. Plantar flexion
c. Depression
d. Opposition
e. Elevation
28. Shrugging the shoulders is an example
a. Elevation
b. Adductin
c. Supination
d. Extension
e. Pronation
29. Which of the following is mismatched?
a. Shoulder joint-coracohumeral ligaments
b. Elbow joint-radial collateral ligaments
c. Hip joint-cruciate ligaments
d. Knee joint-patellar ligaments
e. Ankle-calcaneofibular ligament
30. Which one of the following movements does not occur at the knee joint?
a. Flexion
b. Rotation
c. Abduction
d. Extension
e. All occur at the knee
31. The three arches of the foot
a. Transfer weight from the tibia to the femur
b. Distribute the weight of the body during standing and walking
c. Form a hinge joint
d. Are highest on the lateral side of the foot
e. Form after birth
32. The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as
a. Contractibility
b. Excitability
c. Exensability
d. Elasticity
e. Flexibility
33. Muscles exhibit the property of excitability. This means that the muscle
a. Shortens its length
b. Recoils to its original resting length
c. Stretches beyond its normal length
d. Responds to stimulation by the nervous system
e. Excites itself
34. Identify the statement concerning skeletal muscle that is true
a. It comprises about 20% of the body’s weight
b. It propels urine through the urinary tract
c. Its function is largely under involuntary control
d. It is a kind of connective tissue
e. It is responsible for locomotion
35. Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both
a. Are under involuntary control
b. Are striated
c. Are widely distributed in the body
d. Have multiple nuclei
e. Are under voluntary control
36. Which of the following is true?
a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction
b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs
c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei
d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical
e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart
37. Skeletal muscle fibers
a. Possess striations
b. Can contract but are not extensible or excitable
c. Do not require nerve innervation to contract
d. Increase dramatically in number after birth
e. Are found in the walls of the stomach
38. A fasciculus
a. Is a bundle of reticular fiber
b. Is surrounded by perimysium
c. Is only found in smooth muscle
d. Possesses an external lamina
e. Is a bundle of collagen fibers
39. Endomysium is a delicate network of loose connective tissue that
a. Surrounds each muscle fiber
b. Forms a sheath around a fasciculus
c. Is composed of elastic fiber
d. Separates individual muscles
e. Penetrates muscle fibers
40. Which of the following connective tissue layers is outside all the others?
a. Perimysium
b. Endomysium
c. Epimysium
d. Paramysium
e. Sarcolemma
41. List the following structures in order from smallest to largest: 1. Muscle fiber, 2. myofilament, 3, myofibril, 4. muscle fasciculus
a. 4.2.3.1
b. 2,1,4,3
c. 3,1,4,2
d. 2,3,1,4
e. 1,2,3,4
42. Muscle myofibrils
a. Are found in the sarcolemma
b. Extend from the sarcolemma to the T-tubule
c. Contain myosin and actin myofilaments
d. Hold muscle cells together
e. Do not appear striated
43. A sarcomere extends from
a. One Z disk to an adjacent Z disk.
b. One T tubule to the next T tubule
c. The middle of the I band to the middle of the A band
d. The H zone to the I band
e. M line to the next M line
44. Actin myofilaments
a. Resemble bundles of minute golf clubs
b. Contain both myosin and tropomysis
c. Are held together by the M line
d. Contain strands of fibrous actin
e. Are the thickest proteins in muscle
45. Which of the following is part of a thin myofilament?
a. ATP binding site
b. Globular (G) actin
c. Calcium
d. Myosin
e. Sarcolemma
46. Troponin
a. Has two subunits
b. Is part of the myosin myofilament
c. Is a long, flexible protein
d. Has a calcium-binding site
e. Binds to ATP
47. Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules?
a. Thick myofilaments
b. I bands
c. Z disks
d. Sarcolemma
e. Tropomyosin
48. The active sites to which cross-bridges attach are found on the
a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Actin myofilaments
c. Z disks
d. Ttubules
e. Myosin myofilaments
49. ATPase is found in
a. F-actin strands
b. G-actin strands
c. Myosin heads
d. Tropomyosin grooves
e. Troponin molecules
50. T tubules are invaginations of the
a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Sarcomere
c. Myofibril
d. Sarcoplasm
e. Sarcolemma
51. The sarcoplasmic reticulum
a. Stores calcium ions
b. Shortens during muscle contractions
c. Transmits nerve impulses to the myofibril
d. Connects adjacent sarcomeres
e. Covers the muscle fiber
52. Which of the following statements regarding the sliding filament model is false?
a. Actin and myosin do not shorten during contraction.
b. Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during the contraction.
c. The sarcomere shortens
d. The I band and the H zones become narrower during contraction.
e. The A band remains constant in length.
53. The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called
a. Neuromuscular junctions
b. Saracomeres
c. Myofilaments
d. Z disks
e. Cell body of neuron
54. Electric signals called action potential
a. Cause a muscle cell to contract
b. Transfer information from cell to cell
c. Make complex mental processes possible
d. Send information to the brain
e. All of the above
55. The electrical properties of cells are the result of
a. Ion concentration differences across the plasma membrane
b. Receptor sites that are present on the plasma membrane
c. Phosphorylation reactions within the cytoplasm
d. Phospholipids in the cell membrane
e. None of the above
56. Which of the following causes an unequal ion concentration across the resting plasma membrane?
a. The functioning of the sodium-chloride pump
b. Negatively charged proteins do not readily diffuse across the plasma membrane
c. The attraction of chloride ions to other intracellular anions
d. The repulsion of potassium ions by the intracellular anions
e. The attraction of sodium ions to chloride ions
57. Which of the following is true during the resting membrane potential?
a. Sodium ion concentration is greater inside the cell
b. Negatively charged proteins are more concentrated outside the cell
c. A greater concentration of chloride ions is found inside the cell
d. Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell
e. None of the above is true during the resting membrane potential
58. Channels that open or close in response to changes in the electrical charge across the membrane
a. Ligand-gated ion channels
b. Non-gated ion channels
c. Relegated ion channels
d. Voltage-gated channels
e. Obligated ion channels
59. The outside of the resting plasma membrane is ___ relative to the inside of the resting membrane
a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Electrically charged
d. Recharged
e. None of the above
60. The plasma membrane of an excitable cell is more permeable to potassium ions because
a. Of its positive electrical charge
b. There are more non-gated channels for potassium and sodium
c. Protein molecules cannot exit through the cell membrane
d. Calcium ins block sodium and chloride ions
e. There are more gated channels for potassium
61. Increasing the potassium in concentration outside of the plasma membrane results in
a. Hyperpolarization
b. Depolarization
c. Hypopolarization
d. No change in membrane potential
e. Not enough information to predict
62. In which of the following situations does a resting membrane potential exist?
a. A relaxed muscle fiber
b. A conducting neuron
c. A stimulated sensory receptor in the skin
d. A contracting cardiac muscle cell
e. The eye seeing an image
63. If the resting membrane potential becomes more negative, which of the following has occurred?
a. Hyperpolarization
b. Repolarization
c. Depolarization
d. Isopolarization
e. Hypopolarization
64. Which of the following events will lead to depolarization?
a. An increase in potassium ions in the extracellular fluid
b. A decrease in potassium ions in the extracellular fluid
c. An increase in the rate of diffusion of potassium ions from cells
d. An increase in sodium in the extracellular fluid
e. None of these cause depolarization
65. Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells?
a. When sodium ion channels open, potassium ion channels close
b. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium into the cell
c. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open
d. Sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium ions
e. The opening and closing of ligand-gated channels cause depolarization
66. A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn’t. This is called
a. An all-or-non response
b. A graded response
c. A latent period response
d. A relative refractory response
e. Arbitrary response
67. Synaptic vesicles contain
a. Calcium
b. ATP
c. Acetylcholine
d. Acetylcholinesterase
e. Sodium
68. Acetylcholine binds to a membrane bound receptor and causes ligand-gated sodium channels to open and result in
a. Hyperpolarization
b. Depolarization
c. Hypopolarization
d. No change in membrane potential
e. Not enough information to predict the outcome
69. Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic terminal by the process of
a. Exoctyosis
b. Diffusion
c. Phagocytosis
d. Active transport
e. Endocytosis
70. Arrange these structures as they participate in excitation-contraction
a. T tubule, sarcolemma, calcium ions, sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Calcium ions, T tubules, sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. Sarcolemma,. T tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ion
d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ion, T tubules, sarcolemma
e. Sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ion, T tubule
71. In excitation-contraction coupling
a. Calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin
b. Myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin
c. Cross bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions
d. Movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide
e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments
72. In order for muscle relaxation to occur
a. Calcium ions must be transported to troponin
b. Power strokes slow down
c. The active sits on actin must be blocked
d. Sodium ions must be actively transported to troponin
e. The active sites on myosin must be uncovered
73. Which of the following events occurs during the lag phase of a muscle twitch?
a. Muscle fibers shorten
b. Cross-bridges form, move, release, and reform many times
c. The action potential is propagated from presynaptic terminal
d. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. All of these occur in the lag phase
74. A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the __ level
a. Threshold
b. Relaxation
c. Rigor motris
d. Recruitment
e. Resting
75. The time between application of the stimulus to a motor neuron and the beginning of contraction is called the ____phase
a. Contraction
b. Relaxation
c. Latent or lag
d. Refractory
e. Threshold
76. Whole muscles can respond in a graded fashion to stimuli by varying
a. The force of contraction of individual muscle fibers
b. The number of motor units recruited
c. The amplitude of the action potential
d. The frequency of stimulus
e. Threshold
77. A condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations between contractions is called
a. Complete tetanus
b. Incomplete tetanus
c. Involuntary paralysis
d. All or none tetanus
e. Treppe
78. Treppe
a. Can contribute to improved muscle efficiency
b. May be due to an increase in the level of calcium ions around the myofibril
c. Is an example of a graded response
d. Is achieved during warm-up exercise
e. All of the above
79. A proper definition of muscle tone is