Name ______Period ____

BIOLOGY MID-YEAR REVIEW

Please use your notes, textbook, workbook, vocabulary definitions to answer the following questions.

  1. The term biosphere refers to the parts of Earth that contain
  2. freshwater environments.
  3. living things.
  4. land masses.
  5. greater biodiversity.
  6. Which phrase best describes Earth’s biodiversity?
  7. greater in tropical rainforests
  8. greater toward Earth’s poles
  9. greater according to energy needs
  10. greater where temperatures are most variable
  11. An individual living thing is called a(n)
  12. species. b. cell

c. atom d. organism

  1. Which of these characteristics is shared by all living things?
  2. They are made up of one or more cells.
  3. They make their own chemical energy.
  4. They have similar responses to light.
  5. They reproduce when one cell divides into two.
  6. The basic unit of life is
  7. the cell.
  8. an atom.
  9. DNA.
  10. a species
  11. Which statement best explains why the shape of teeth differs according to the diet of a species?
  12. Individual parts must work together.
  13. Organisms interact with other organisms.
  14. Structure and function are related in biology.
  15. Organisms must maintain homeostasis.
  16. The maintenance of constant internal conditions in an organism is known as
  17. homeostasis.
  18. negative feedback.
  19. structure specialization.
  20. adaptation.
  21. Which aspects of life on Earth are accounted for by evolution?
  22. diversity and unity
  23. interaction and conflict
  24. lack of genetic and physical change
  25. divergence of structure and function
  26. A beneficial inherited trait that is passed on to future generations is a(n)
  27. stimulus.
  28. adaptation.
  29. system.
  30. homeostatic mechanism
  31. Which word best describes a scientific hypothesis?
  32. provable
  33. theoretical
  34. testable
  35. quantifiable
  36. At which stage of scientific inquiry would scientists find out if their hypotheses were supported by their data?
  37. observing
  38. testing hypotheses
  39. analyzing data
  40. evaluating results
  41. In an experiment, the condition that is manipulated by a scientist is the
  42. independent variable.
  43. dependent variable.
  44. constant.
  45. control condition.
  1. Which of the following is an important characteristic of a scientific theory?
  2. proven by more than one scientist
  3. unchanged by new evidence
  4. accepted by the public
  5. supported by much evidence
  6. One way in which experimental research differs from observational research is that only experimental research can
  7. test a hypothesis.
  8. produce scientific results.
  9. support a theory.
  10. show cause and effect.
  11. An electron microscope would be the best choice for viewing
  12. live bacteria.
  13. human ligaments.
  14. details of cell structure.
  15. a person’s brain activity.
  16. Which phrase best defines a gene?
  17. basic unit of life
  18. segment of DNA
  19. slice of a specimen
  20. inherited trait
  21. Knowledge of biology can promote advances by helping all people make
  22. strong opinions.
  23. informed decisions.
  24. profitable products.
  25. individual values.
  26. The use and application of living things and biological processes is known as
  27. medical research.
  28. human biology.
  29. epidemiology.
  30. biotechnology.
  31. Which of the following is an example of transgenic organisms?
  32. bacteria that produce human insulin
  33. microorganisms that produce cheese
  34. yeast used to produce bread
  35. algae that produce hydrogen gas
  1. Biotechnology raises ethical questions, primarily concerning the
  2. safety of eating transgenic plants.
  3. wisdom of continuing to use technology.
  4. ways in which knowledge should be used.
  5. best use of funds for biological research.
  6. Which phrase best describes atoms?
  7. single-celled organism
  8. smallest basic units of matter
  9. parts of a nucleus
  10. positively charged particles
  11. Which of the following cannot be broken down by ordinary chemical means?
  12. element
  13. compound
  14. molecule
  15. bond
  16. What is a compound?
  17. two atoms of a single element bonded together
  18. atoms of different elements bonded together in certain ratios
  19. separate atoms of multiple elements in varying ratios
  20. a molecule of two oxygen atoms
  21. An ion is formed when an atom gains or loses
  22. protons.
  23. neutrons.
  24. bonds.
  25. electrons.
  26. Atoms connected by covalent bonds share
  27. pairs of electrons.
  28. ionic compounds.
  29. carbon and oxygen.
  30. hydrogen ions
  31. Hydrogen bonds can form between regions of polar molecules that are
  32. nonpolar.
  33. negatively charged.
  34. oppositely charged.
  35. uncharged (neutral).
  36. The attraction among molecules of different substances is called
  37. cohesion.
  38. adhesion.
  39. specific heat.
  40. surface tension.
  41. Why is water necessary to your body?
  42. It prevents large changes in blood pH.
  43. It dissolves and transports substances.
  44. It dissolves nonpolar fats and oils.
  45. It forms the solutes in blood plasma.
  46. Which of the following phrases best describes a solvent?
  47. has a high concentration of solutes
  48. can be dissolved by the solute
  49. present in a greater concentration than solutes
  50. usually a sugar or a protein
  51. A solution with a high concentration of H ions
  52. shows a pH of 7.
  53. kills all organisms.
  54. has a high pH.
  55. is very acidic
  56. Carbon is unique due to the carbon atom’s
  57. bonding properties.
  58. six outer unpaired electrons.
  59. ionic compounds.
  60. hydrogen bonding strength.
  61. Which category of carbon-based molecules includes sugars and starches?
  62. unsaturated fatty acids
  63. phospholipids
  64. proteins
  65. carbohydrates
  66. The double arrows tell you that the following reaction
    CO2 H2OCO2CO3
  67. takes place very rapidly.
  68. is very unstable.
  69. occurs in both directions.
  70. has high bond energies.
  1. Fats, oils, and cholesterol are all types of
  2. cell membranes.
  3. hormones.
  4. lipids.
  5. fatty acids.
  6. Proteins are composed of which molecules?
  7. amino acids
  8. fatty acids
  9. monosaccharides
  10. nucleic acids
  11. DNA and RNA are two types of
  12. proteins.
  13. nucleic acids.
  14. lipids.
  15. carbohydrates.
  16. Which phrase best describes an exothermic chemical reaction?
  17. does not absorb any energy
  18. forms products with higher bond energy than reactants
  19. is in a state of equilibrium
  20. releases more energy than it absorbs
  21. Chemical reactions change substances into different substances by
  22. conserving matter between the substances.
  23. breaking and forming chemical bonds
  24. strengthening electrical charges of substances.
  25. changing a solvent into a solute.
  26. Identifythereactants inthefollowingchemicalreaction:6H2O6CO2C6H12O66O2
  27. 6H2Oand6CO2
  28. 6CO2andC6H12O6
  29. 6H2O,C6H12O6,and6O2
  30. C6H12O2and6O6
  31. What is the term for the amount of energy that needs to be added for a chemical reaction to start?
  32. chemical energy.
  33. activation energy.
  34. bond energy.
  35. reactant energy.
  36. Which phrase best describes an exothermic chemical reaction?
  37. does not absorb any energy
  38. forms products with higher bond energy than reactants
  39. is in a state of equilibrium
  40. releases more energy than it absorbs
  41. Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce and produce fertile offspring?
  42. individual
  43. population
  44. species
  45. fossil
  46. Which scientist proposed that if an organism used a structure so much that it grew, the trait of that larger structure could be passed to its offspring? (This is no longer believed to happen…)
  47. Erasmus Darwin
  48. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
  49. Georges de Buffon
  50. Charles Lyell
  51. Which of the following is a fossil?
  52. a plant that has recently died
  53. a group of similar organisms that can reproduce
  54. a structure or organ that no longer functions
  55. a trace of an organism that existed in the past
  56. The theory that landforms on Earth’s surface, such as mountains, waterfalls, and canyons, were created as the result of sudden, spectacular events is called the theory of
  57. uniformitarianism.
  58. catastrophism.
  59. gradualism. d. evolution.
  60. The difference in the physical traits of an individual from those of other individuals in a group is called a(n)
  61. change.
  62. adaptation.
  63. species.
  64. variation.
  65. Over time, adaptations can lead populations to experience
  66. environmental changes.
  67. genetic changes.
  68. geologic changes.
  69. extinctions.
  70. What did Charles Darwin observe in finch populations on the Galápagos Islands off the coast of South America?
  71. different species on different islands
  72. all species on one of the islands
  73. identical species on all the islands
  74. the same species as in North America
  75. What did Charles Darwin learn from the fossils of a giant armadillo that he found in Argentina?
  76. An earthquake led to the armadillo’s extinction.
  77. Armadillos used to be marine organisms.
  78. Modern animals may be related to fossilized organisms.
  79. Fossils do not resemble modern animals.
  80. The development by scientists of a new color in a rose is the result of
  81. natural selection.
  82. artificial selection.
  83. descent with modification.
  84. overproduction.
  85. In natural selection, the selective agent is the
  86. humans.
  87. mutations.
  88. breeders.
  89. environment.
  90. All the rabbits living in a particular area would be an example of a(n)
  91. population.
  92. species.
  93. fossil.
  94. individual organism.
  1. A bird that can easily out-compete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
  2. life expectancy.
  3. mutation rate.
  4. fitness.
  5. adaptability.
  6. Which of the following describes natural selection?
  7. It acts on genetic material directly.
  8. It acts on existing physical traits.
  9. It forms new traits.
  10. It forms new genetic material.
  11. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
  12. the wings of red-tailed hawks
  13. the hind limbs of a house cat
  14. the fins of a shark
  15. the wings of an ostrich
  16. Biogeography is the study of the
  17. distribution of organisms around the world.
  18. environments around the world.
  19. different types of rocks around the world.
  20. age of fossils around the world.
  21. What is suggested by the similarity of early embryos of different species of vertebrates?
  22. no evolutionary relationship between the groups
  23. recent common ancestry
  24. similar environments in the past
  25. evolution from a distant common ancestor
  26. Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures. These are known as
  27. vestigial structures.
  28. analogous structures.
  29. homologous structures.
  30. fossil structures.
  1. If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
  2. close relative.
  3. early ancestor.
  4. unrelated organism.
  5. embryological stage.
  6. Paleontology is the study of
  7. ecosystems.
  8. genetics.
  9. fossils.
  10. rocks and minerals.
  11. Two organisms that are closely related would have
  12. very similar DNA sequences.
  13. exactly the same DNA sequences.
  14. no proteins in common.
  15. completely different DNA sequences.
  16. Evolution is considered to be one of the most important theories in science, because it
  17. was developed more than 100 years ago.
  18. is not supported by the fossil record.
  19. unites the fields of biology, geology, chemistry, and ecology.
  20. was discovered by Charles Darwin, a famous scientist.
  21. Protein sequences in one organism that resemble those of another suggest a
  22. coincidence.
  23. lack of evolutionary relationship.
  24. great number of mutations.
  25. shared ancestry.
  26. A measure of how commonly a particular allele occurs in a population is known as the
  27. gene pool.
  28. allele frequency.
  29. mutation rate.
  30. phenotype.
  1. The more genetic variation a population has, the more likely it is that some individuals will
  2. evolve.
  3. migrate.
  4. survive.
  5. mutate.
  6. Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene. This change is called a(n)
  7. mutation.
  8. gene flow.
  9. gene pool.
  10. allele.
  11. The normal shuffling of alleles during meiosis results in
  12. mutations.
  13. hybridization.
  14. reproduction.
  15. recombination.
  16. Which term means the crossing of two different species that share common genes?
  17. mutation
  18. hybridization
  19. population
  20. recombination
  21. What do molecular clocks use to measure evolutionary time?
  22. dichotomous keys
  23. mutation rates
  24. physical characteristics
  25. binomial nomenclature
  26. Which of the following has the lowest mutation rate?
  27. ribosomal RNA
  28. protein sequences
  29. amino acids
  30. mitochondrial DNA
  1. How does mitochondrial DNA differ from nuclear DNA?
  2. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from both parents, and nuclear DNA is not.
  3. Mitochondrial DNA has a lower mutation rate than nuclear DNA.
  4. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from the mother only, and nuclear DNA is inherited from both parents.
  5. Mitochondrial DNA is made of amino acids and nuclear DNA is made of nucleotides.
  6. The best molecular clock for comparing distantly related species is
  7. mitochondrial DNA.
  8. ribosomal RNA.
  9. nuclear DNA.
  10. protein.
  11. The best molecular clock for comparing closely related species is
  12. mitochondrial DNA.
  13. ribosomal RNA.
  14. nuclear DNA.
  15. protein.
  16. What is the observable change in the allele frequencies of a population over time called?
  17. selection
  18. microevolution
  19. distribution
  20. recombination
  21. Natural selection that changes the distribution of a trait to favor one extreme phenotype is called
  22. disruptive selection.
  23. stabilizing selection.
  24. normalizing selection.
  25. directional selection.
  1. In stabilizing selection, what occurs in a population?
  2. The population shifts toward one of two extreme phenotypes.
  3. Both extreme phenotypes shift toward the middle.
  4. The intermediate phenotype becomes more common.
  5. The intermediate phenotype becomes rare.
  6. A population that is not undergoing natural selection displays what type of distribution?
  7. normal
  8. disruptive
  9. directional
  10. stabilizing
  11. In a population of birds, intermediate beak size is selected against, and both very small and very large beak sizes are favored. What type of selection is this an example of?
  12. directional
  13. disruptive
  14. normal
  15. stabilizing
  16. Chance changes in allele frequencies within a population are called
  17. gene flow.
  18. gene pool.
  19. genetic drift.
  20. sexual selection.
  21. A small number of birds, blown off course during migration, find an island and colonize it. This population will most likely experience genetic drift as a result of the
  22. founder effect.
  23. bottleneck effect.
  24. sexual selection.
  25. mutations.
  26. Fighting between male elephant seals over females is an example of
  27. bottleneck effect.
  28. intrasexual selection.
  29. intersexual selection.
  30. founder effect.
  1. What increases genetic variation when animals move from one population to another population?
  2. genetic drift
  3. sexual selection
  4. bottleneck effect
  5. gene flow
  6. A problem in all populations influenced by the bottleneck effect is that
  7. genetic variation is lost.
  8. alleles can’t become fixed.
  9. offspring inherit harmful alleles.
  10. chance no longer affects them.
  11. Which of the following conditions could mean that a population is inHardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
  12. The population is small.
  13. Gene flow is common.
  14. Mating is random.
  15. Mutations occur frequently.
  16. The Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to
  17. estimate the rate of mutations in a population.
  18. determine the likelihood of random mating.
  19. calculate the gene flow rate among organisms.
  20. predict genotype frequencies in a population.
  21. The five factors that can lead to evolution are gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection, and
  22. sexual selection.
  23. controlled mating.
  24. emigration.
  25. immigration.
  26. Mutations are important because they bring about
  27. death of the organism in which they develop.
  28. genetic variation needed for a population to evolve.
  29. benefits for the individual, but not for the population.
  30. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium within a population.
  31. Which of the following statements applies to real populations?
  32. Mutations are rarely passed to offspring.
  33. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is rare.
  34. Gene flow represses alleles for desirable traits.
  35. Evolution cannot occur in large populations1.What is speciation?
  36. combining of two species to form one with different traits
  37. isolation that affects mating behavior
  38. timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
  39. divergence of two or more species from an existing one
  40. A difference of chemical scents between two populations is an example of what kind of isolation?
  41. temporal
  42. behavioral
  43. geographic
  44. disruptive
  45. An earthquake causes an ocean channel to open up on an island where a low area previously existed. The island’s lizard population is now separated on the two parts of the island, providing an example of
  46. geographic isolation.
  47. behavioral isolation.
  48. disruptive selection.
  49. temporal isolation.
  50. Which of the following examples illustrates a temporal barrier to mating between populations?
  51. Populations of the same species of seal live on islands too far apart to swim between them for mating.
  52. Species of birds have elaborate courtship dances, and females select the best dancers as mates.
  53. Varieties of oak tree produce pollen during different seasons, so they can’t pollinate one another.
  54. Herds of caribou misinterpret each other’s mating behavior, so they fight instead of mating.
  55. What kind of isolation occurs when two populations of birds have different courtship dances?
  56. geographic
  57. sexual
  58. temporal
  59. behavioral
  60. Which of the following processes is considered to be random?
  61. genetic mutation
  62. natural selection
  63. adaptive radiation
  64. coevolution
  65. The American flying squirrel and the flying phalanger of Australia live in similar environments and look very similar. However, they are not closely related. Their resemblance is most likely an example of
  66. sexual selection.
  67. temporal isolation.
  68. convergent evolution.
  69. divergent evolution.
  70. The Galápagos Islands in the Pacific Ocean have varied habitats. Divergent evolution is occurring on these islands, meaning that the species that live there
  71. have lived unchanged through long periods of stability.
  72. are becoming more like each other in response to their habitats.
  73. change in response to changes in other species they interact with.
  74. had common ancestors but have become increasingly different.
  75. Like all flowering plants, the snapdragon must be pollinated to reproduce, but its flowers are closed. A bumblebee has just enough weight to open a snapdragon flower by landing on it. This adaptation is an example of
  76. convergent evolution.
  77. coevolution.
  78. divergent evolution.
  79. speciation.
  80. The total and permanent disappearance of a species from Earth is called
  81. radiation.
  82. coevolution.
  83. extinction.
  84. equilibrium.
  85. The fossil footprint of a dinosaur is an example of a(n)
  86. amber-preserved fossil.
  87. natural cast.
  88. natural cast.
  89. permineralized fossil.
  90. In which of the following situations would it be more likely for a fossil to form?
  91. A vertebrate dies near a river delta.
  92. An invertebrate dies on a mountain.
  93. A soft-bodied worm dies in a desert.
  94. A mammal dies on a rock bed.
  95. The amount of time it takes for half of a radioactive isotope to decay is known as the
  96. isotope.
  97. half-life.
  98. product.
  99. radiocarbon.
  100. Radiometric dating of which of the following samples has estimated the age of Earth to be 4.5 billion years?
  101. Burgess Shale fossils
  102. Tollund Man.
  103. lake bed deposits
  104. fallen meteorites
  105. A natural cast forms when an organism
  106. is trapped in tree resin, which hardens around it
  107. leaves an impression in sediment that fills with minerals
  108. has hard structures that are surrounded by minerals
  109. becomes encased whole in a material that preserves it.
  1. Fossils that are useful for dating, because they are common, easy to identify, widespread, and existed for