Итоговое занятие по курсу «современные проблемы молекулярной биологии»
Concluding Session of the “Modern problems of Molecular Biology” course
1. List of study questions for grounding in Molecular biology Concluding session
1. Purpose and task of molecular biology. Basic stages of discipline’ development.
2. Modern achievements of biotechnology. Concept about molecular medicine.
3. Proteins’ structural organization. Prion’ illnesses.
4. Biological function of proteins.
5. Chemical composition of DNA and its macromolecular organization.
6. Description of DNA replication’ process.
7. Mechanisms of DNA repair. Role of reparative processes in human diseases’ development.
8. Mechanisms of DNA recombination
9. Chemical composition and function of RNA.
10. Structure of eukaryotic gene. Classification of genes.
11. Enzymatic mechanisms and stages of transcription
12. Processing. Alternative splicing.
13. Mechanisms and stages of translation.
14. Regulation of eukaryotic genes expression.
15. Principles of organization of viral genome.
16. Description of genome and life cycle of retroviruses.
17. Bacterial genome. Plasmids.
18. Human genome’ characteristic.
19. Molecular mechanisms and classification of gene mutations.
20. Molecular and cytological mechanisms of genomic mutations.
21. Molecular and cytological mechanisms of chromosomal mutations.
22. Mutagenic factors. Methods of substantial mutagenic activity determination.
23. Antimutagenes.
24. Regulation of mitotic cycle.
25. Apoptosis.
26. Genetic mechanisms of oncogenesis.
27. Principles of recombinant DNA construction.
28. DNA fragments identification. Southern-blotting.
29. Polymerase chain reaction.
30. Direct DNA methods.
31. Indirect DNA methods.
32. Application of molecular-genetic diagnostics in medicine.
33. Fragments of nucleic acids cloning in vivo
34. Transgenic bacteria, plants, animals and ways of their use.
35. Principles of gene therapy.
36. Cloning of organisms. Therapeutic cloning.
2. List of tests for grounding in Molecular Biology Concluding Session:
1. Different physical and chemical factors can destroy the structure of DNA. What do we call the ability of the cells to regenerate the DNA structure?
A. Transduction.
B. Transcription.
C. Replication.
D. Reparation.
E. Transformation
2. Where in your cell would you find your DNA?
A in proteins
B in nucleus
C in amino acids
D in RNA
E in cytoplasm
3. Some mRNA triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA) code no aminoacids, but in the process of reading information they are terminators, in other words, they are able to stop the translation. What are they?
A. Stop-codons.
B. Operators.
C. Anticodons.
D. Exons.
E. Introns.
4. During the synthesis period (S) of the cell cycle the redoubling of DNA quantity takes place. This process occurs because of
A Denaturation of DNA
B Dissociation of DNA
C. Replication of DNA.
D. Reparation of DNA.
E. Coagulation of DNA.
5. DNA double spirals, which were formed as a result of replication, consist of one maternal chain and one daughter chain. What do we call this way of replication?
A. Conservative.
B. Analogous.
C. Identical.
D. Dispersical.
E. Semiconservative.
6. Which one of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA?
A Thymine
B Adenine;
C Uracil;
D Cytosine;
E Guanine.
7. Which one of the following nucleotides is not present in RNA?
A Thymine
B Adenine;
C Uracil;
D Cytosine;
E Guanine
8. Which levels of DNA organization pertaining DNA?
A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D correctanswers are А+В+С.
E None of these above
9. What DNA conformation is most common?
A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. Z-DNA
D. C-DNA
E. D-DNA
10. Which DNA conformation is left-handed?
A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. Z-DNA
D. C-DNA
E. D-DNA
11. It is known DNA molecule in B conformation makes a ladder of 2 nm in diameter and distance between rungs in 3,4 nm. Every rung has consists of 10 base pairs. What is the length of DNA fragment consisting of 100 base pairs?
A. 0,34 nm.
B. 0,17 nm.
C. 34 nm.
D. 17 nm.
E. 340 nm.
12. A nucleotide is composed of...
A. a 6-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base and 3 phosphate groups
B. long chains of hydrocarbons with phosphate groups attached
C. a 5-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
D. a 6-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
E. a 5-carbon sugar, a fatty acid chain and a phosphate group
13. Where in your cell would you find your RNA?
A in proteins
B in nucleus
C in cytoplasm
D in RNA
E both in cytoplasm and in nucleus
14. What is a "strand" of DNA?
A. sequence of nitrogen bases joined with hydrogen-phosphate backbone
B. sequence of hydrogen bases joined with sugar-phosphate backbone
C. sequence of hydrogen bases joined with fat-phosphate backbone
D sequence of nitrogen bases joined with sugar-phosphate backbone
E. None of these above
15. Each strand of DNA is made up of two zones or regions. One zone of each strand is made up of identical repeating units, while another zone is made up of differing units. What are these zones of each strand called?
A. sugar-phosphate backbone and nitrogen bases
B. hydrogen bond and nitrogen bases
C. hydrogen-phosphate backbone and nitrogen bases
D. sugar-phosphate backbone and hydrogen bases
E. protein-phosphate backbone and nitrogen bases
16. What holds one strand against the other in the double helix?
A. Covalent bond
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Sugar-phosphate bond
D. Nitrogen bond
E. Peptide bond
17. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation is damaging because it…
A. causes mutations in the DNA
B. prevents DNA transcription
C. inhibits protein synthesis
D. deactivates the enzymes needed for DNA replication
E. prevents DNA translation
18. A microbiologist found that a clone of bacteria infected by a phage had developed the ability to make a particular amino acid that the bacteria could not make before the infection. This new ability was probably a result of…
A. Transduction
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation
D. spontaneous mutation
E. natural selection
19. What model of replication DNA has?
A. Dispersive
B. Prokaryotic
C. Transformative
D. Semiconservative
E. Distributive
20. The enzyme responsible for joining Okazaki fragments is...
A. RNA primase
B. DNA ligase
C. Telomerase
D. DNA polymerase
E. Transposase
21. When do cells duplicate their DNA?
A. Before gene expression
B. Before cell division
C. During G2-phase of the cell cycle
D. During S-phase of the cell cycle
E. During G1-phase of the cell cycle
22. One base pair is not in position to form normal Watson-Crick hydrogen bonds. Can you find it?
A G-C
B A-T
C G-T
D T-A
E C-G
23. What type of RNA molecule is largest?
A. tRNA
B. hnRNA
C. mRNA
D. rRNA
E. snRNA
24. What RNA amount is above all other in the cell?
A. tRNA
B. hnRNA
C. mRNA
D. rRNA
E. snRNA
25. How a segment of DNA that stores genetic instructions is called?
A. Nucleus
B. Gene
C. Ribosomes
D. tRNA
E. mRNA
26. What is gene?
A It is a segment of DNA corresponding to a single protein or structural RNA molecule
B It is a segment of DNA corresponding to a single protein
C It is a segment of DNA corresponding to a structural RNA molecule
D It is a segment of structural RNA corresponding to a single protein
E It is a segment of RNA corresponding to a single protein
27. Exon has following function:
A It is non-coding DNA sequences
B It is coding DNA sequences
C It is non-coding RNA sequences
D It is coding RNA sequences
E It is not present in nucleic acids
28. Intron has following function:
A It is non-coding DNA sequences
B It is coding DNA sequences
C It is non-coding RNA sequences
D It is coding RNA sequences
E It is not present in nucleic acids
29. What parts are longer in the eukaryotic gene?
A Exons
B Introns
C Cystrones
D All parts have equal length
30. What is the function of structural gene?
A it is determines sequence of RNA nucleotides
B it is determines structure of protein
C it is regulates structure of other genes
D it is regulates function of other genes
E it is the “evolutional fossil” of human genome
31. What is the function of gene-regulator?
A it is determines sequence of RNA nucleotides
B it is determines structure of protein
C it is regulates structure of other genes
D it is regulates function of other genes
E it is the “evolutional fossil” of human genome
32. What is the function of pseudogene?
A it is determines sequence of RNA nucleotides
B it is determines structure of protein
C it is regulates structure of other genes
D it is regulates function of other genes
E it is the “evolutional fossil” of human genome
33. What is the function of “housekeeping” gene?
A it is determines sequence of RNA nucleotides
B it is determines structure of protein
C it is determines structure of protein or RNA are actively used by the cell
D it is regulates function of other genes
E it is the “evolutional fossil” of human genome
34. What is the function of genes of modulation?
A it is causes of other genes activity reduction or incretion
B it is determines structure of protein
C it is determines structure of protein or RNA are actively used by the cell
D it is regulates function of other genes
E it is the “evolutional fossil” of human genome
35. Name the sequence of the eukaryotic gene’ parts:
A Promoter, CAP, leader, Coding region, stop codon, trailer, poly(A) tail
B CAP, Promoter, leader, Coding region, stop codon, trailer, poly(A) tail
C Promoter, CAP, leader, Coding region, stop codon, poly(A) tail, trailer,
D Promoter, leader, CAP, Coding region, stop codon, trailer, poly(A) tail
E Promoter, CAP, leader, Coding region, trailer, stop codon, poly(A) tail
36. What are highly repetitive sequences of human genome?
A clusters of genes’ sequences
B pseudogenes’ sequences
C structutal genes
D Alu sequences
E None of these above
37. Protein-repressor is found in a cell. What gene codifies the sequence of amino acids of this protein?
A. Promotor.
B. Terminator.
C. Regulator.
D. Modificator.
E. Operator.
38. The TATA box is known to be responsible for joining the RNA polymerase enzyme and initiating the transcription. At that site deletion of two nucleotide pairs has taken place. What consequences could it have?
A. Lack of protein synthesis.
B. Formation of abnormal proteins.
C. Synthesis of protein in unlimited quantities.
D. Formation of normal protein.
E. Short finish of protein synthesis.
39. The CAP is known as a succession of nucleotides that provides recognition of ribosome small subunits. On this site deletion of two nucleotide pairs has taken place. What consequences could it have?
A. Lack of protein synthesis.
B. Formation of abnormal proteins.
C. Synthesis of protein in unlimited quantities.
D. Formation of normal protein.
E. Short finish of protein synthesis.
40. How many structural genes are known in the human genome?
A 32 000
B 30 000
C 18 000
D 19 500
E 23000
Test 7
41. How many genes of mitochondria are involved in respiration
A 37
B 24
C 13
D 25
E 14
42. After an RNA molecule is transcribed from a eukaryotic gene, portions called ____ are removed and the remaining ____ are spliced together to produce an mRNA molecule with a continuous coding sequence.
A. promoters ... operators
B. exons ... introns
C. operators ... promoters
D. silencers ... enhancers
E. introns ... exons
43. How many nucleotides are needed to code for a protein with 450 amino acids?
A. at least 300
B. at least 1,350
C. at least 150
D. at least 450
E. at least 900
44. Protein synthesis, controlled by DNA, requires all of the following EXCEPT _____
A. amino acids
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. ribosomes
D. mRNA
E. tRNA.
45. What part of cell do transcription occurs in?
A in cytoplasm
B in nucleus
C in nucleolus
D in EPR
E in Golgi apparatus
46. What part of cell does hnRNA maturation occurs in?
A in cytoplasm
B in nucleus
C in nucleolus
D in EPR
E in Golgi apparatus
47. What part of cell does translation occurs in?
A in cytoplasm
B in nucleus
C on EPR
D in Golgi apparatus
E within ribosomes
48. What part of cell do posttranslation processes occurs in?
A in cytosol, in nucleus, in EPR
B in EPR, Golgi complex, nucleus
C in EPR, Golgi complex, cytosol
D in Golgi complex, within ribosomes
E None of these above
49. What stage of protein synthesis tRNA is charged on?
A Initiation
B Recognition
C Elongation
D Termination
E Activation
50. What type of RNA is charged during gene expression?
A mRNA
B tRNA
C rRNA
D snRNA
E microRNA
51. What is minimal level of structure required for protein can perform its function?
A the primary
B the secondary
C the tertiary
D the quaternary
52. On what levels of structure protein cannot carry on its function?
A the primary and secondary
B the secondary and tertinary
C the tertiary and quaternary
D the quaternary and primary
E none of these above
53. How many amino acids do create the living beings’ proteins?
A 25
B 18
C 20
D 22
54. How many nucleotides of RNA do codon consists of?
A 1
B 5
C 3
D 10
55. What is "elongation" of RNA?
A coping codes into codones
B process of pre-mRNA synthesis
C process of matured RNA synthesis
D process of protein synthesis
E processing and splicing
56. What is gene expression?
A protein synthesis
B expressivity of some trait in phenotype
C RNA synthesis
D process by which a gene's information is converted into the structures and functions of a cell
E All of these above
57. What is "transcription" of DNA?
A coping codes into codones
B pre-mRNA synthesis
C matured RNA synthesis
D protein synthesis
E RNA polymerase
58. What is "translation" of DNA?
A coping codes into codones
B pre-mRNA synthesis
C matured RNA synthesis
D protein synthesis
E RNA polymerase
59. What is the function of amynoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
A tRNA synthesis
B tRNA charging
C tRNA breakage down
D tRNA transport
E None of these above
60. What is "maturation" of RNA?
A coping codes into codones
B pre-mRNA synthesis
C matured RNA synthesis
D protein synthesis
E processing and splicing
61. What is catabolic control of operon structure?
A negative control by efforting molecule and protein-repressor
B positive control by efforting molecule and protein-repressor
C negative control by catabolite activator protein
D positive control by catabolite activator protein
E Trans- regulation of gene activity
62. What is anabolic control of operon structure?
A negative control by efforting molecule and protein-repressor
B positive control by efforting molecule and protein-repressor
C negative control by catabolite activator protein
D positive control by catabolite activator protein
E Trans- regulation of gene activity
63. What is cis-regulation of gene activity?
A affection the expression of genes physically located far away
B regulation of expression of operably linked polypeptide-encoding sequences
C regulation of transcript processing and modification
D regulation of pranscript stability
E all of these above
64. What is trans-regulation of gene activity?
A affection the expression of genes physically located far away
B regulation of expression of operably linked polypeptide-encoding sequences
C regulation of transcript processing and modification
D regulation of pranscript stability
E all of these above
65. A bacterium can make the amino acid glycine or absorb it from its surroundings. A scientist found that glycine binds to a repressor protein and causes the repressor to bind to the bacterial chromosome, turning off an operon. If it is like other operons, the presence of glycine will result in the _____
A. inhibition of bacterial cell division
B. the breakdown of glycine
C. cessation of the synthesis of glycine
D. manufacture of the repressor protein
E. formation of sex pili
66. Which of the following RNAs is(are) transcribed from DNA molecule?
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. snRNA
E. all of these
67. Which RNA polymerase catalyzes the formation of mRNA?
A. poly I
B. poly III
C. poly II
D. poly V
E. any of these
68. Which of the following is not a step of mRNA processing?
A. elongation
B. splicing
C. capping
D. methylation
69. Which of the following serves as the principal initiation codon?
A. AUC
B. UGG
C. UGA
D. AUG
E. AGU
70. Which site of ribosome accepts the incoming tRNA during protein sysnthesis ?
A. P site
B. A site
C. E site
D. neither (a) no (b)
E. both (a) and (b)
71. Releasing factors are involved in which stage of protein synthesis?
A. termination
B. activation
C. initiation
D. elongation
E. modification
72. Post-translational controls include which of the following processes?
A. degradation of misfolded proteins
B. chaperoning
C. removal of methionine at the N-terminal
D. all of these
73. Proto-oncogenes may be transformed into oncogenes by which of the following mechanisms?
A. a control of the cell's own growth factor is taken by virus
B. mutation of this gene
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) no (b)
74. All of the following may play a role in determining whether or not a gene is transcribed except:
A. promoter regions in the DNA
B. histone acetylation
C. microtubules
D. the TATA box
E. DNA methylation
75. In the lac operon, lactose (or one of its isomers) acts as the ______for the system.
A. Operator
B. Cooperator
C. Promoter
D. Corepressor
E. Inducer
76. Which of the following is true of gene regulation in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
A. The removal of noncoding portions of RNA in the making of mRNA
B. lac and trp operons
C. transcription is the usual point at which gene expression is regulated
D. the addition of a cap and a tail to mRNA
E. elaborate packing of DNA in chromosomes
77. The direction of synthesis of an RNA transcript is
A. 1' —> 5'
B. 5' —> 3'
C. 1' —> 3'
D. 3' —> 5'
E. 2' —> 4'
78. The RNA segments joined to one another by spliceosomes are _____.
A. Caps
B. Exons
C. snRNPs
D. tails
E. introns
79. What enzyme catalyzes the attachment of an amino acid to tRNA?
A.aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
B.endonuclease
C.dextrinase
D.argininosuccinate lyase
E. nuclease
80. What is the karyotype formula for aneuploidy?
A 2n+1
B 2n
C 3n
D 5n
E None of these above
81. What is the karyotype formula for polyploidy?
A 2n+1
B 2n
C 3n
D 2n+2
E None of these above
82. What is the karyotype formula for nullisomy?
A 2n+1
B 2n – 1
C 2n+2
D 2n-2
E none of these above
83. What is the karyotype formula for monosomy?
A 2n+1
B 2n – 1
C 2n+2
D 2n-2
E none of these above
84. What is the karyotype formula for trisomy?
A 2n+1
B 2n
C 3n
D 5n
E none of these above
85. During meiotic chromosomes’ disjunction a secondary oocyte which contains 22 autosomes has been formed. What disease can the baby have after the fertilization of this secondary oocyte by a normal spermatozoon?
A. Klinfelter's syndrome.
B. Turner's syndrome.
C. Trisomy on the X-chromosome.
D. Down's syndrome.
E. Edward's syndrome.
86. One of the forms of rickets is inherited in the autosomal dominant way. This disease is a result of:
A. Aneuploidy.
B. Changes in the number of chromosomes.
C. Chromosomal mutations.
D. Polyploidy.
E. Gene mutations.
87. Sickle-sell anemia, when erythrocytes are in the form of a sickle, if widespread among the population of some districts in tropic Africa. What biological phenomenon is this disease based on?
A. Gene mutation.
B. Chromosomal aberration.
C. Modification.
D. Chromosomal mutation.
E. Transduction.
88. The parents of an ill 5-year-old girl came for advice to a genetic consultation. In her karyotype 46 chromosomes were found. One of the chromosome of the 15th pair was longer that usual due to joining a part of chromo some of the 21th pair to it. What mutation took place in this case?
A. Inversion.
B. Deletion.
C. Balanced translocation.
D. Duplication.
E. Unbalanced translocation.
89. The cells of an abortive fetus only 44 chromosomes were found due to the absence of both chromosomes from the 3rd pair. What type of mutation occurred?
A. Monosomy.
B. Chromosomal aberration.
C. Gene mutation.
D. Polyploidy.
E. Nullisomy.
90. During the inspection of a girl's karyotype a shortened arm of the 20th chromosome was found. What do we call this mutation?
A. Duplication.
B. Deletion.
C. Inversion.
D. Translocation.
E. Monosomy on the 20th chromosome.
91. The cells of an abortive fetus only 44 chromosomes were found due to the absence of both chromosomes from the 3rd pair. What type of mutation occurred?
A. Monosomy.
B. Trisomy.
C. Gene mutation.
D. Polyploidy.
E. Nullisomy.
92. Free radicals’ and T-T dimmers amount is increasing in the skin exposured under the sunlight. Which mutagenic agent causes these changes?
A Chemical
B Physical
C Biological
D Artificial
E None of these above
93. Which of the following mutations is most likely to produce a polypeptide identical to the polypeptide produced without the mutation?
A. None of these mutations will produce a polypeptide identical to the polypeptide without the mutation.
B. frameshift mutation
C. a nonsense (stop) mutation
D. missense mutation
E. a silent mutation
94. What DNA methods are indirect?
A DNA amplification
B Southern blot
C Northern blot
D Western blot
E None of these above
95. What DNA methods are direct?
A DNA amplification
B Southern blot
C Northern blot
D Western blot
E Correct answers are A+B