AP Psychology Make-up version

States of Consciousness, Learning, and Memory

1. The process of getting information into memory is called

a. priming b. chunking c. encoding d. registering

2. After looking up his friend’s phone number, Fred could remember it only long enough to dial it. In this case, the number was clearly stored in Fred’s ______memory.

a. short-term b. flashbulb c. long-term d. implicit

3.Automatic processing involves

a. unconsciously deleting information from the memory system

b. a tendency to recall only emotionally significant events

c. the effortless encoding of certain types of information

d. all of the above.

4. Effortful processing can only occur with

a. implicit memory b. conscious attention c. visual imagery d. chunking

5. When first introduced to her new students, Mrs. Johnson repeats the name several times to herself. She is making use of an encoding strategy called

a. chunking b. automatic processing c. next-in-line effect d. rehearsal

6. Which pioneering researcher made extensive use of nonsense syllables in the study of human memory?

a. Pavlov b. Sperling c. Watson d. Ebbinghaus

7. Taped information played during sleep is registered by the ears but is not remembered. This illustrates that the retention of information often requires

a. proactive interference b. chunking c. effortful processing d. priming

8. Students often remember more information from a course that spans an entire year rather than from a course that is completed in an intensive learning period (kinda makes you wonder about block scheduling). This best illustrates the importance of

a. spacing effect b. chunking c. the serial position effect d. implicit memory

9. On the telephone, Dee rattles off 10 items that Leigh needs to bring home. Leigh immediately tries to write them all down, but she is most likely to forget the items

a. at the beginning of the list b. at the end of the list

c. in the middle of the list d. at the beginning and at the end

10. The process by which information is encoded by its meaning is called

a. long-term potentiation b. priming c. mnemonic encoding d. semantic encoding

11. Your ability to immediately recognize the voice over the phone as your mother’s illustrates the value of

a. flashbulb memory b. next-in-line effect c. acoustic encoding d. chunking

12. Rephrasing text material in your own words is an effective way to facilitate

a. semantic encoding b. mood-congruent memory c. proactive interference d. implicit memory

13. We remember words that lend themselves to mental images better than we remember abstract low-imagery words. This best illustrates the value of

a. iconic memory b. visual encoding c. flashbulb memory d. long-term potentiation

14. By presenting research participants with three rows of three letters each for only a fraction of a second, Sperling demonstrated that people have ___ memory.

a. echoic b. flashbulb c. iconic d. implicit

15. Research on sea snails suggest that memory formation is facilitated by

a. serotonin b. alcohol c. chunking d. priming

16. Long-term potentiation refers to

a. the impact of overlearning on retention

b. the automatic tendency to recall emotionally significant events

c. the increased neural readiness for impulse transmission

d. the process of learning something without having any conscious memory of having learned it

17. Implicit memory is to explicit memory as ____ is to ____.

a. hippocampus; brainstem b. short-term memory; long-term memory

c. effortful processing; automatic processing d. skill memory; fact memory

18. Although Mr. Smith recently learned to play poker quite well, he can’t consciously remember ever having played poker. It is likely Mr. Smith has suffered damage to his

a. brainstem b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus

19. The cerebellum seems to play a significant role in _____ memory.

a. echoic b. implicit c. iconic d. explicit

20. The discover that words heard underwater are later recalled better underwater than on land best illustrates the value of

a. state-dependent memory b. the spacing effect c. context retrieval cues d. implicit memory

21. Larry was feeling depressed when he read his psychology textbook. Because of mood-congruence, Larry will remember the contents of the book when he is

a. depressed b. happy c. relaxed d. unemotional

22. After studying biology all afternoon, Al is having difficulty remembering the organic chemistry that he memorized that morning. This best illustrates

a. the self-reference effect b. proactive interference

c. retroactive interference d. the spacing effect

23. Proactive interference refers to

a. the decay of memory synapses b. previous learning interfering with new learning

c. new learning interfering with old learning d. repression of painful memories

24. Which of the following would explain why Ebbinghaus found that the task of learning new lists of nonsense syllables was increasingly difficult as his research career progressed?

a. spacing effect b. proactive interference c. retroactive interference d. extrinsic motivation

25. When Hal told his roommate about his chemistry exam, he exaggerated its difficulty. After that, he remembered the exam to be as difficult as he had said. This best illustrates

a. flashbulb memory b. misinformation effect c. self-reference effect d. proactive interference

26. According to most experts, memories of stressful, emotionally charged events are NOT likely to be

a. encoded b. repressed c. stored d. retrieved.

27. Who emphasized that we repress painful memories in order to minimize our own anxiety?

a. Ebbinghaus b. Loftus c. Peterson d. Sperling e. Freud

28. Research on sleep and dreams indicates that

a. occasional use of sleeping pills effectively reduces insomnia.

b. circadian rhythms have no influence on our patterns of sleep.

c. sleepwalking involves acting out scenes that occur during REM sleep.

d. none of these are true.

29. Cindi prefers to take exams in the late afternoon rather than during the morning because her energy level and ability to concentrate are better at that time. This reflects the influence of

a. REM rebound b. Stage 1 sleep deprivation

c. circadian rhythms d. hypnogogic sensations.

30. Alpha waves are associated with

a. REM sleep b. Stage 1 sleep c. Stage 2 sleep d. relaxed wakefulness

31. Hypnogogic sensations occur during ___ sleep.

a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

32. Sleep spindles typically occur during _____ sleep

a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

33. The large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep are called

a. alpha waves b. beta waves c. sleep spindles d. delta waves

34. Which of the following typically occur during REM sleep?

a. night terrors b. bedwetting c. excessive movement d. none of these

35. Paradoxical sleep is to slow-wave sleep as ____ sleep is to _____ sleep.

a. REM; Stage 2 b. Stage 2; REM c. REM; Stage 4 d. Stage 4; REM

36. When people are experiencing vivid dreams

a. their bodies often move in accordance with what they dream

b. their eyes are likely to move under their closed eyelids.

c. they are more likely to sleepwalk than during any other stage of sleep.

d. all of the above are true.

37. Caffeine boosts alertness by inhibiting the activity of

a. hallucinogens b. serotonin c. adenosine d. epinephrine e. all of these

38. Deep sleep appears to play an important role in

a. posthypnotic amnesia b. sleep apnea c. paradoxical sleep d. physical growth

39. Which of the following sleep disorders would be the most incapacitating for a commercial airline pilot?

a. night terrors b. insomnia c. sleep apnea d. narcolepsy

40. It has been found that night terrors

a. are usually recalled vividly for days following their occurrence

b. are typically accompanied by a state of temporary muscular paralysis

c. jolt the sleeper to a sudden state of full waking alertness.

d. typically occur during Stage 4 sleep.

41. Shane, a straight-A student, remembers dreaming that he failed an important chemistry test. According to Freud, Shane’s account represents the ____ content of his dream, but Freud would have wanted to uncover the _____ content in psychoanalysis.

a. manifest; latent b. paradoxical; latent c. dissociated; manifest d. delusional; paradoxical

42. Almost all hypnosis reearchers agree that hypnosis is a state of

a. amnesia b. REM sleep c. heightened suggestibility d. dissociation

43. Research indicates that memories retrieved during hypnosis are

a. forgotten again as soon as the person awakens from the hypnotic state

b. accurate recollections of information previously learned.

c. experienced as being inaccurate even when they are true.

d. often a combination of fact and fiction.

44. Advocates of the social influence theory of hypnosis are likely to argue that

a. hypnosis is a unique state of consciousness

b. hypnotized people are acting the role of good hypnotic subjects.

c. dissociation best explains hypnotic phenomena

d. most hypnotized people are faking their hypnotic state.

45. The divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis states that hypnosis involves

a. paradoxical sleep b. role playing c. dissociation d. extrinsic vs. intrinsic motivation

46. Which of the following provides the clearest indication of a drug addiction?

a. physical dependence b. hallucinations c. daydreaming d. REM rebound

47. When moderately intoxicated by alcohol,

a. an angry person tends to be more aggressive than usual.

b. a kind person tends to be more generous than usual.

c. a sexually aroused person tends to be more sexually active than usual.

d. all of the above people tend to behave as stated.

48. After drinking three cocktails, John feels less guilty about the way that he mistreats his wife and children. This reduced guilt is most likely a result of alcohol’s ability to

a. reduce sexual desire b. destroy brain cells

c. reduce John’s self-awareness d. increase sympathetic nervous system arousal levels

49. Which of the following drugs is classified as a stimulant?

a. nicotine b. marijuana c. morphine d. alcohol e. LSD

50. A brief 15-20 minute rush of euphoria followed by a crash of agitated depression is most closely associated with the use of

a. marijuana b. cocaine c. LSD d. barbiturates

51. The best predictor of an adolescent’s pattern of drug usage is whether the adolescent

a. has close friends who use drugs b. grows up in a traditional two-parent family

c. has religious beliefs d. has free access to a car

52. The altered state of consciousness that is most similar to a drug-induced hallucination is

a. REM sleep b. a near-death experience c. hypnosis d. narcolepsy

53. By directly experiencing a thunderstorm, we learn that a flash of lightning signals a crash of thunder (and we believe, because of this sequence, that lightening flashes cause thunder). This best illustrates

a. operant conditioning b. spontaneous recovery

c. observational learning d. classical conditioning

54. The researcher most closely associated with the study of classical conditioning is

a. Thorndike b. Skinner c. Bandura d. Pavlov

55. If a ringing bell causes a dog to salivate because the bell has been regularly associated with food in the mouth, the UCR is the

a. ringing bell b. salivation to the ringing bell

c. food in the mouth d. salivation to the food in the mouth

56. Which of the following is an unconditioned response?

a. salivating at the sight of a lemon b. raising your hand to ask a question

c. jerking your hand off a very hot stove d. walking into a restaurant to eat

57. If the taste of food triggers salivation in a dog, the food in the dog’s mouth is the

a. UCS b. UCR c. CS d. CR

58. Jack finally takes out the garbage in order to get his father to stop pestering him. Jack’s behavior is being influenced by

a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. punishment d. shaping

59. If the sound of an electric can opener causes a cat to salivate because the can opener has been associated with the presentation of food, the cat’s salivation to the sound of the can opener is the

a. UCS b. UCR c. CS d. CR

60. You always rattle the box of dog biscuits before you give Fido a treat. As you do so, your dog comes running. Rattling the box is a(n) _____ and your dog’s running is a(n) _____.

a. UCS; CR b. UCS; UCR c. CS; UCR d. CS; CR

61. The initial stage of classical conditioning during which a response to a neutral stimulus is established and gradually strengthened is called

a. dissociation b. acquisition c. observational learning d. shaping

62. If an experimenter wants to condition a dog to salivate to a light by pairing the light with food, the dog will learn most quickly when the experimenter presents the light

a. 5-10 seconds before the food b. ½ second before the food

c. at exactly the same time as the food d. ½ second after the food

63. After a dog was conditioned to salivate to a tone, the experimenter repeatedly sounded the tone without giving the dog food. As a result, ______occurred.

a. generalization b. negative reinforcement c. latent learning d. extinction

64. Long after being by a stray dog, Jake found that his fear of dogs seemed to disappear. However, when he recently was confronted by a stray dog in an alley, he experienced deep fear. This sudden anxiety best illustrates