Question # 201 (Multiple Choice) Durign intraosseous cannulation it is important to inserted the needle at the anterior surface of the tibial bone 2 centimeters distal to the tibial tuberosity, and directed somewhat inferior in order to avoid damaging the:
A) internal venule
B) periosteum
C) epiphyseal plate
D) fibial plane
Question # 202 (Multiple Choice) After initiating an IV line, your fluid will not flow. The most common cause of this is:
A) leaving the tourniquet in place
B) using a mini drip set improperly
C) a kinked IV line
D) excessive air in the tubing
Question # 203 (Multiple Choice) Average blood volume of an adult is
A) 6 liters
B) 15 units
C) 12 liters
D) 2 gallons
Question # 204 (Multiple Choice) A widened pulse pressure with decreased diastolic pressure, bradycardia and Cheyne-Stokes indicates
A) Becks Triad
B) Cushings Triad
C) Listerine Triad
D) Pousilles Triad
Question # 205 (Multiple Choice) Of the following, your first choice for controlling external bleeding from an extremity should be
A) use of pressure points
B) the use of a tourniquet
C) direct pressure
D) elevation of the extremity
Question # 206 (Multiple Choice) Body substance isolation (BSI) precautions taken when there is a high probability of blood splatter should include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) gloves
B) masks
C) oral airway adjunct
D) protective eyewear
Question # 207 (Multiple Choice) The chief assessment element that tells you whether to suspect internal hemorrhage is:
A) mechanism of injury
B) medical history
C) initial blood pressure
D) level of consciousness
Question # 208 (Multiple Choice) The patient with suspected internal bleeding should be given oxygen by:
A) nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute
B) nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute
C) nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute
D) nonrebreather mask at 8 liters per minute
Question # 209 (Multiple Choice) Oxygen can be delivered more effectively by orotracheal intubation because:
A) a higher liter flow of oxygen can be used
B) more airtight seal can be made with the mask
C) a lower liter flow of oxygen will still produce good results
D) oxygen can be fed directly into the lungs via the trachea
Question # 210 (Multiple Choice) An important concept to understand about shock in infants and children is that:
A) their bodies cannot compensate for blood loss for very long
B) decompensating shock develops very gradually
C) they compensate for a long time, then decompensate rapidly
D) it takes a higher percentage of blood loss to cause shock in a child
Question # 211 (Multiple Choice) All of the following are true relative to the aorta EXCEPT that the aorta:
A) divides at the level of the navel into the iliac arteries
B) is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood
C) supplies all other vessels with blood
D) is the major artery originating from the heart
Question # 212 (Multiple Choice) At an MCI, a patient with multiple bone or joint injuries would be considered considered
A) green
B) yellow
C) red
D) black
Question # 213 (Multiple Choice) You arrive at the Big Cement Block store to find a 62 year old female sitting in the laxative aisle complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 80/48, pulse 160. your initial treatment should be to
A) have your partner perform a vagal maneuver
B) defibrillate her at 200 joules
C) replace her electrolyte loss with LR
D) perform a synchronized cardioversion
Question # 214 (Multiple Choice) History and exam indicates your 77 year old female patient has digitalis toxicity. Which drugs are contraindicated in this case?
A) lidocaine and atropine
B) adenosine and amiodarone
C) magnesium sulfate and sodium bicarbonate
D) bretylium and verapamil
Question # 215 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the initial attempt to defibrillate an 80-kg, 56 year old female in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate energy level for the second defibrillation should be
A) 50 joules
B) 100 joules
C) 200 joules
D) 300 joules
Question # 216 (True/False) The most important step in the treatment of acidosis during cardiac arrest should be to increase ventilation
A) True
B) False
Question # 217 (Multiple Choice) Your 62 year old female is hypotensive. Your dopamine infusion should be kept at less than 20ug/kg/min or it could result in
A) increased renal arterial vasodilation
B) peripheral arterial vasoconstriction
C) cardiac depression and increased stroke volume
D) further depressing myocardial contractility
Question # 218 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the second attempt to defibrillate the 80-kg, 56 year old female and she remains in in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate energy level for the next defibrillation should be
A) 100 joules
B) 150 joules
C) 260 joules
D) 360 joules
Question # 219 (Multiple Choice) If your 78 year old patient had a ventricular fibrillation arrest on the way to the E.R., and was successfully resuscitated to sinus rhythm, which consideration is INAPPROPRIATE in giving lidocaine?
A) a downward dosage adjustment of 50% is appropriate for elderly people
B) the presence of CHF requires a upward adjustment in lidocaine infusion rates in addition to the effects of age per se
C) decreased hepatic blood flow, resulting in decreased clearance of lidocaine
D) there may be an increased drug sensitivity
Question # 220 (Multiple Choice) Homeostasis in the geriatric patient
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) fluctuates
Question # 221 (Multiple Answer) Regarding the geriatric patient, hat potential factors could contribute to falls? check all that apply)
A) leg weakness
B) use of Viagra
C) daily intake of furosemide
D) cognitive impairment
Question # 222 (Multiple Answer) What additional information would be helpful in the initial evaluation of some geriatric patients? (check all that apply)
A) baseline level of function
B) change in functional status
C) taking any medications
D) history of cognitive impairment
E) history of alcoholism
Question # 223 (Multiple Choice) Other types of altered disease presentations that occur in older people include all of the following EXCEPT
A) Muted or delayed typical symptoms
B) Classic altered presentations
C) Silent myocardial infarctions
D) Increased renal circulation
Question # 224 (Multiple Choice) The elderly tend to be cool and require additional outside sources to maintain normal temperatures. What is the normal body temperature in centigrade?
A) 98.6
B) 37.0
C) 86.0
D) 74.0
Question # 225 (Multiple Choice) The geriatric patient suffering form organic brain syndrome or dementia may not be able to make a rationale decisions regarding emergency care. In these situations, you may use ____to permit you to legally render care.
A) Good Samaritan Laws
B) Standards of Care
C) Implied Consent
D) Informed Consent
Question # 226 (Multiple Choice) Fractures in all age groups should have a neurological check prior to and post splinting. What two types of nerve fibers make up the peripheral nervous system?
A) central and peripheral
B) motor and peripheral
C) peripheral and synaptic
D) sensory and motor
Question # 227 (Multiple Choice) Speaking of old, Clara Barton founded
A) PHTLS
B) American Red Cross
C) American Heart Association
D) NHTSA
Question # 228 (Multiple Choice) As we age, our bones become
A) deficient in magnesium
B) high in iron
C) high in potassium
D) deficient in calcium
Question # 229 (Multiple Choice) ACLS defines unstable ventricular tachycardia that needs to be treated as meeting what condition
A) altered mental status
B) chest pain
C) BP < 90 systolic
D) all of the above
Question # 230 (Multiple Choice) Which one of the following findings would most likely cause an significant problem in a geriatric patient
A) mouth breathing
B) hypotension
C) pedal edema
D) lower lobe rales
Question # 231 (Multiple Choice) What is the correct cumulative dose of atropine for bradycardia associated with serious signs and symptoms
A) 0.04 mg/kg
B) 0.4 mg/kg
C) 4.0 mg/kg
D) none of the above
Question # 232 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following is the best definition of hyperventilation
A) respiratory rate of greater than 24 per minute
B) oxygen saturation of 99%
C) tidal volume of greater than 1000cc
D) end tidal C02 < 5% to 6% CO2 (35-45 mmHg)
Question # 233 (Multiple Choice) A 23 year old dancer has collapsed at a club. You find her with no pulse and your monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. You should immediately of treatment would you use initially for the patient with ventricular fibrillation?
A) begin CPR and intubate
B) start an IV and push epinephrine
C) start an IV and push atropine
D) defibrillate at 200 joules
Question # 234 (Multiple Choice) A 43 year old female electrician has been accidentally shocked with an AC current. The arrhythmia you would most likely see from the effects of this is
A) PEA (pulseless electrical activity)
B) ventricular tachycardia
C) asystole
D) ventricular fibrillation
Question # 235 (Multiple Choice) Atropine may be harmful and should not be given to patients with
A) 3rd degree heart blocks with a widened QRS complex
B) sinus rhythms with frequent PJC's
C) sinus tachycardia with hypertension
D) asystole following ventricular fibrillation
Question # 236 (Multiple Choice) Starling's Law refers to
A) cardiac stroke volume
B) alveoli gas exchange
C) peripheral vessel radius
D) baroreceptors
Question # 237 (Multiple Choice) Organisms that cause infection, such as viruses and bacteria, are called:
A) pathogens
B) toxins
C) antigens
D) antibodies
Question # 238 (Multiple Choice) Disposable gloves, eye shields, masks, and gowns are known as:
A) airborne pathogen precautions
B) bloodborne disease precautions.
C) disease prevention equipment
D) personal protective equipment.
Question # 239 (Multiple Choice) A NIOSH-approved HEPA or N-95 respirator is recommended when caring for a patient suspect of having:
A) tuberculosis
B) AIDS
C) hepatitis
D) staphylococcal skin infection
Question # 240 (Multiple Choice) Your first responsibility as an EMT-B is to
A) open the patient's airway
B) keep yourself safe
C) gain access to the patient
D) provide for the patient's safety
Question # 241 (Multiple Choice) The only time(s) when you can release confidential patient information is/are to:
A) inform other health care professionals who need information in order to continue care.
B) report incidents required by state law such as rape or abuse
C) comply with a legal subpoena
D) all of the above
Question # 242 (Multiple Choice) It is important to evaluate scene safety prior to entering the scene because you need to determine:
A) what personal protective equipment you will need
B) the likely mechanism of injury
C) what additional resources may be needed
D) all of the above
Question # 243 (Multiple Choice) You suspect a substantial exposure to your trauma patient's blood. Local reporting requirements will typically ask you to:
A) report this exposure in the run data section of your repor
B) report the incident to the Centers for Disease Contro
C) record this exposure on a special report form
D) describe the incident in the narrative section of your report
Question # 244 (Multiple Choice) External bleeding that presents a danger to you is from an
A) artery
B) vein
C) capillary
D) all of the above
Question # 245 (Multiple Choice) Precautions taken when there is a high probability of blood splatter should include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) gloves
B) protective eyewear
C) masks
D) nose plugs
Question # 246 (Multiple Choice) When managing the patient with soft tissue injuries it is important to always:
A) completely disinfect the wound site
B) apply the PASG to your patient
C) take barrier precautions
D) seal the wound with an occlusive dressing
Question # 247 (Multiple Choice) Geriatric patients have a much higher incidence of cardiac syncope. Patients ___ years of age have a cardiovascular cause of syncope twice the incidence of patients ___ years of age.
A) 45 to 60, 20 to 45
B) 50 to 80, 12 to 45
C) 60 to 90, 15 to 59
D) 80 to 100, 40 to 60
Question # 248 (True/False) Syncope in pediatric patients can be due to breath-holding spells
A) True
B) False
Question # 249 (Multiple Choice) An ECG should be performed on ___ patients with syncope
A) all
B) most
C) few
D) none
Question # 250 (Multiple Choice) Hypoglycemia is associated with a gradual change in mental status which is prolonged and reversed only by an increase in serum glucose. The return to a normal mental state is somewhat ___ than in syncope
A) slower
B) faster
C) there is no difference is return to a normal mental state
Question # 251 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements is true?
A) syncope caused by seizures can be differentiated from vasomotor syncope based on tonic- clonic activity and postictal confusion
B) syncope caused by seizures cannot be differentiated from vasomotor syncope as both present with tonic- clonic activity and postictal confusion
C) syncope produced by a seizures will not be preceded with an associated seizure aura
Question # 252 (Multiple Choice) All patients who suffer syncope should have a full set of vitals, pulse, respiration and BP, obtained. What other ' vital sign ' is necessary for the field provider to obtain?
A) cardiac 12 lead
B) blood glucose
C) temperature
D) orthostatic BP
Question # 253 (True/False) Head turning could cause a syncopal episode from carotid sinus hypersensitivity
A) True
B) False
Question # 254 (Multiple Choice) A definitive diagnosis will be made in only approximately__ of the patients presenting to the Emergency Department with syncope.
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 70%
Question # 255 (True/False) Panic attacks, conversion reactions, or hysteria do NOT cause syncope.
A) True
B) False
Question # 256 (Multiple Choice) The most common central nervous system cause of loss of consciousness is a(n)
A) heat stroke
B) subarachnoid hemorrhage
C) electrical shock
D) seizure
Question # 257 (Multiple Choice) Metabolic causes of syncope include hypoglycemia and hyponatremia. Hypoglycemia and hyponatremia refer to ____and ____
A) decreased blood sugar, decreased blood sodium
B) increased insulin, increased blood potassium
C) decreased blood sugar, decreased blood calcium
D) decreased blood sugar, increased blood sodium
Question # 258 (Multiple Answer) Cardiac syncope can be caused by (check all that apply)
A) asystole, second or third degree heart block
B) sick sinus syndrome or carotid sinus hypersensitivity
C) prolonged QT syndrome or aortic stenosis
D) hypertrophic subaortic stenosis or pulmonary embolus
Question # 259 (Multiple Choice) Your 58 year old patient say he passed out after having a severe and lengthy coughing fit. His syncope would be labeled
A) vasovagal syncope
B) situational syncope
C) orthostatic hypotension
D) vasomotor
Question # 260 (Multiple Choice) Syncope caused by orthostatic hypotension could be caused by
A) acute blood loss
B) vomiting
C) diarrhea
D) all of the above
Question # 261 (Multiple Choice) Vasovagal episodes are often associated with
A) blood loss
B) hypothermia
C) distressing news
D) excitement
Question # 262 (Multiple Choice) Vasomotor syncope best refers to
A) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to vasoconstriction
B) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to vasodilation
C) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to loss of vessel tone
D) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to vasoconstriction
Question # 263 (True/False) Psychogenic syncope is self correcting in most cases
A) True
B) False
Question # 264 (Multiple Choice) Brief myoclonic jerking may occur with a syncope episode. This is
A) normal
B) abnormal
C) only with cardiac based cases
D) only when drugs are involved
Question # 265 (Multiple Choice) Loss of cerebral blood flow for ___ seconds results in loss of consciousness
A) 3-5
B) 5 - 10
C) 10-15
D) 15-20
Question # 266 (Multiple Choice) One way in which syncope can be defined is
A) gradual loss of consciousness
B) inability to maintain postural tone
C) simple feinting
D) none of the above
Question # 267 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following chemicals should be brushed off before washed off?
A) hydrochloric acid
B) acetic acid
C) sodium hydroxide
D) dry lime
Question # 268 (Multiple Choice) Acid burns to the eyes should be flooded with water for at least __
A) 20 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 30 minutes
Question # 269 (Multiple Choice) Chemical burns can be caused by
A) acids
B) bases
C) caustics
D) all of the above
Question # 270 (Multiple Choice) A secondary problem due to a burn from an electrical shock could be
A) fractures
B) seizures
C) irregular heartbeat
D) all of the above
Question # 271 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has been exposed to an unknown chemical which has soaked his clothing. You should immediately flush the patient with:
A) water
B) a neutralizing solution
C) vinegar
D) a baking soda solution
Question # 272 (Multiple Choice) You are caring for a 24-year-old female patient who accidentally spilled an alkaline drain cleaner on her forearm. The cleaner has been washed off but the arm is still painful, red, and blistered. This burn would be classified as
A) partial thickness
B) severe
C) superficial
D) full thickness
Question # 273 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has fallen from a horse and has a fractured lower leg. Since the broken bone has torn through the skin, this fracture is called:
A) closed
B) open
C) simple
D) spinal
Question # 274 (Multiple Choice) An important reason to splint a closed painful, swollen, deformed injury is to:
A) cover any external injuries
B) prevent it from becoming an open injury
C) allow the patient to move the injured extremity without pain
D) make transporting the patient easier and more comfortable
Question # 275 (Multiple Choice) General rules of splinting include
A) attempting to push protruding bones back into place
B) splinting of all injuries individually prior to transport
C) not using extra padding, as this may decrease the effectiveness of the splint
D) checking for pulse, motor function, and sensation before and after splinting
Question # 276 (Multiple Choice) If you have applied a splint properly, it will immobilize the
A) injury site, only
B) adjacent joints and bone ends
C) entire extremity
D) injury site and one joint below
Question # 277 (Multiple Choice) If your patient is a high priority for "load and go" transport, the fastest method of splinting would be securing
A) the injured limb to the torso
B) the injured limb to an uninjured limb
C) the entire body to a spine board
D) each site individually to a rigid splint
Question # 278 (Multiple Choice) Your first priority in treating a patient with a swollen and deformed extremity is:
A) opening and maintaining the airway
B) splinting the swollen, deformed extremities
C) applying direct pressure to open injuries
D) assessing circulation in injured extremities.