Practice Exam 1- 2/6

Below are sample questions from your book, a student study guide, and some that I made up. These are not necessarily indicative of the specific material or types of questions that Dr. Roe will ask. Remember, he wants you to be able to apply your knowledge and material learned in class so make sure that you can answer these and understand the significance/importance/application of them. Below is also a list of the main categories we discussed in class that you should know. Good luck!

You Should Know:

  • Ch. 1, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30
  • All vocabulary that has been discussed in class
  • How to create a good hypothesis
  • How to read a phylogenetic tree
  • Be able to classify organisms as:
  • Prokaryotes/eukaryotes
  • Obligative/facultative aerobe/anaerobe
  • Heterotroph/autotroph and type (ie: photosynthetic)
  • Bacteria/Archaea/Eukarya
  • Gram negative and gram positive
  • All classifications and characteristics of protists
  • All classifications and characteristics of plants
  • How things evolved
  • Genetic recombination
  • Endosymbiant theory
  • Close relatives- similarities and differences
  • Etc.

1. In an experiment, a researcher found that there were more total predator attacks on model king snakes in areas with coral snakes than in areas outside the range of coral snakes. From this the researchers conclude that:

a. the mimicry hypothesis is false.

b. there were more predators in the areas with coral snakes

c. king snakes do not resemble coral snakes enough to protect them from attack

d. the data that should be compared to draw a conclusion must include a control- a comparison with the number of attacks on model brown snakes

e. more data must be collected before a conclusion can be drawn.

2. Why can a hypothesis never be “proven” to be true?

a. one can never collect enough data to be 100% sure

b. there may always be alternative hypotheses that might account for the results and that were not tested

c. science is limited by our senses

d. experimental error is involved in every research project

e. science “evolves”; hypotheses and even theories are always changing

3. Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?

a. The temperature decreased from 20oC to 15oC

b. the plant’s height is 25 centimeters (cm)

c. the fish swam in a zig-zag motion

d. the six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks

e. the contents of the stomach are mixed every 20 seconds

4. Which of the following best describes the logic of hypothesis-based science?

a. If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it

b. If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.

c. If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis

d. If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results

e. If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis

5. A controlled experiment is one that

a. proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results

b. may include experimental groups and control groups tested in parallel

c. is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.

d. keeps all environmental variables constant

e. is supervised by an experienced scientist.

6. Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?

a. theories are hypotheses that have been proved

b. hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers

c. hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power

d. hypotheses and theories are essentially the same thing

e. theories are proved true in all cases; hypotheses are usually falsified by tests

7. Shared derived characters are

a. those that characterize all the species on a branch of a phylogenetic tree

b. determined through a computer comparison of paralogous genes in a group of species

c. homologous structures that develop during adaptive radiation

d. characters found in the outgroup but not in the species under consideration

e. used to identifiy species but not higher taxa

8.

According to this phylogenetic tree, C and D are most closely related because they

a. do not share a common ancestor with O, A, or B

b. are monophyletic

c. evolved from a common ancestor a long time ago

d. have the most shared derived characters in common

e. have the youngest species

9. Three living species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor T, as do extinct species U and V. A grouping that includes species T, X, Y, and Z makes up

a. A valid taxon

b. a monophyletic clade

c. sister taxa

d. a paraphyletic group

e. a polyphyletic group

10. Many prokaryotes secrete a sticky capsule outside the cell wall that

a. allows them to glide along a slime thread

b. serves as protection from host defenses and glue for adherence

c. reacts with the Gram stain

d. is used for attaching cells during conjugation

e. is composed of peptidoglycan, polymers of modified sugars cross-linked by short polypeptides

11. Genetic variation in prokaryotes may be a result of

a. horizontal gene transfer

b. mutation

c. conjugation

d. transformation and transduction

e. all of the above

12. Archaea

a. are thought to be more closely related to eukaryotes than to bacteria

b. have cell walls that lack peptidoglycan

c. are often found in harsh habitats, reminiscent of the environment of early Earth

d. include the methanogens, extreme halophiles, and extreme thermophiles, as well as groups found in more moderate habitats

e. are all of the above

13. Which of the following groups is matched with an incorrect description?

a. Proteobacteria- diverse gram-negative bacteria including pathogens such as Salmonella and Helicobacter pylori, as well as beneficial species such as Rhizobium

b. Chlamydias- intracellular parasites, including a species that causes blindness and nongonococcal urethritis

c. Spirochetes- helicial heterotrophs, including pathogens causing syphilis and Lyme disease

d. Gram-positive bacteria- diverse group that includes actinomycetes, mycoplasmas, and pathogens that cause anthrax, botulism, and tuberculosis

e. Cyanobacteria- photosynthetic filamentous colonies; some species use the pigment bacteriorhodopsin and inhabit very saline waters

14. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Archaea and bacteria have different membrane lipids

b. Both Archaea and bacteria generally lack membrane-enclosed organelles

c. The cell walls of Archaea lack peptidoglycan

d. Archaea and bacteria are two groups in the same domain

e. Only some Archaea use CO2 to oxidize H2, releasing methane

15. According to the theory of secondary endosymbiosis,

a. multicellularity evolved when primitive cells incorporated prokaryotic cells that then took on specialized functions

b. the symbiotic associations found in coral result from the incorporation of dinoflagellates into coral animals

c. cells that had obtained their plastids through endosymbiosis were engulfed and themselves became plastids in heterotrophic eukaryotic cells

d. the infoldings and specializations of the plasma membrane led to the evolution of the endomembrane system

e. the nuclear membrane evolved first then mitochondria, and then plastids.

16. Which protists are in the same eukaryotic supergroup as animals?

a. dinoflagellates

b. forams

c. parabasalids

d. stramenopiles

e. amoebozoans

17. Which eukaryotic supergroup includes the land plants?

a. Unikonta

b. Archaeplastida

c. Excavata

d. Chromalveolata

e. Rhizaria

Matching:Match the protist clades with their characteristics and examples.

A. AlvoleaD. EuglenozoansG. Red Algae

B. AmoebozoansE. Forams and RadiolariansH. Stramenopiles

C. Diplomonads and parabasalidsF. Green Algae

______18. Modified mitochondria; Giardia, Trichomonas

______19. Plant-type chloroplasts; Chlamydomonas, Ulva

______20. Lope-shaped pseudopodia; free-living amoeba, parasites, slime molds

______21. Phycoerythrin, no flagellated stage; Porphyra

______22. Hairy and smooth flagella; water molds, diatoms, golden and brown algae

______23. Amoebas with threadlike pseudopodia; Globigerian

______24. Subsurgace sacs; dinoglagellates, apicomplexans, ciliates

______25. Glagella with spiral or crystalline rod; Trypanosoma, Euglena

26. Plastids that are surrounded by more than two membranes are evidence of

a. evolution from mitochondria

b. fusion of plastids

c. origin of the plastids from archaea

d. secondary endosymbiosis

e. budding of the plastids from the nuclear envelope

27. In life cycles with an alternation of generations, multicellular haploid forms alternate with

a. unicellular haploid forms

b. unicellular diploid forms

c. multicellular haploid forms

d. multicellular diploid forms

e. multicellular polyploidy forms

28. Adaptations for terrestrial life seen in all plants are

a. chlorophylls a and b

b. cell walls of cellulose and lignin

c. sporopollenin, protection and nourishment of embryo by gametophyte

d. vascular tissue

e. cuticle and stomata

29. Plants are thought to be most closely related to charophytes based on

a. peroxisome enzymes that minimize photorespiration

b. rosette cellulose-synthesizing complexes in their plasma membranes

c. phragmoplast formation of cell plates in mitosis

d. similarities in sperm cells (in those land plants with flagellated sperm0

e. all of the above

30. Bryophytes differ from all other land plant groups because

a. their gametophyte generation is dominant

b. they are lacking gametangia

c. they have flagellated sperm

d. they are not embryophytes

e. all of the above

31. The evolution of sporopollenin was important to the movement of plants onto land because it

a. provided a mechanism for the dispersal of spores and pollen

b. provided the structural support necessary to withstand gravity

c. enclosed developing gametes and embryos in maternal tissue and prevented desiccation

d. provided a tough coating for spores so they could disperse on land

e. initiated the alternation of generations that is characteristic of all plants

32. Bryophytes where the dominant plants in the first 100 million years of plant evolution. By the Carboniferous period, seedless vascular plants formed giant forests. Why were these plants able to outcompete bryophytes?

a. Their protected embryos were better able to withstand dry conditions, providing a selective advantage in dominating terrestrial habitats

b. They did not require water for their sperm to swim to fertilize the eggs, allowing them to colonize dry habitats

c. Because they were diploid, they could grow faster and taller than haploid bryophytes

d. As heterosporous plants, their spores had more genetic variation, enabling natural selection to favor taller growth

e. Their vascular tissue enable them to grow tall, competing for light and shading out other plants

33. In plants, which of the following are produced by meiosis?

a. haploid sporophytes

b. haploid gametes

c. diploid gametes

d. haploid spores

e. diploid spores

34. Which of the following is a key difference between seedless vascular plants and plants with seeds?

a. The gametophyte generation is dominant in the seedless plants, whereas the sporophyte is dominant in the seed plants

b. The spore is the agent of dispersal in the first, whereas the seeds functions in dispersal in the second.

c. Seedless plants are heterosporous; seed plants are homosporous

d. The embryo is unprotected and totally independent in the seedless plants but retained within the female reproductive structure in the seed plants

e. sporopollenin is not found in the seedless plants

35. Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except

a. seeds

b. pollen

c. vascular tissue

d. ovaries

e. ovules

Tips for Success

1. Don’t cram. Studies show that you need 17x repetition on something to effectively remember and understand it. You’ll be happy that you know Bio 211 for every other bio-based course you take.

2. Be present physically and mentally in class. Dr. Roe will be telling you what you need to know if you’re actively listening. Coming to class and sleeping, talking, or texting is the same as not coming at all.

3. Read the book and work on Mastering Biology. That whole repetition thing. The book is very good at explaining difficult concepts. If you’re struggling with something from lecture go to the book to better understand it.

4. Take advantage of all available points. That means taking every quiz, test, attendance point, and extra credit assignment available to you. You definitely won’t get the points if you don’t do the work.

5. Don’t be afraid to get help. There are a lot of ways to get help for this course. If you’re struggling you can talk to Dr. Roe, go to the SI sessions, or get a tutor. Another great place to turn towards is the Academic Success Center if you want better study habits, note taking skills, etc.

6. Don’t plan to drop an exam. At the time it always seems like a good idea when you’re too swamped to study- until the next test comes around and you didn’t have time to study for that one either. Besides, tests almost always get harder as you progress in the semester. Take advantage of the easy tests so you don’t rely on acing the hard ones.

7. Read the questions thoroughly.Sometimes multiple answers are correct and you need to choose the one that is most correct for the situation. If you don’t know what a question is really asking, you won’t be able to answer it!

8. Breathe! It’s one test in your entire life. Odds are, you are not going to remember it so don’t stress about it. If you are prepared you will be fine.