1. Any operating procedure, practice or condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed and followed.
  2. Note
  3. Warning
  4. Caution
  5. Procedure
  6. Max gross weight for takeoff.
  7. 3200
  8. 3100
  9. 3300
  10. 3250
  11. Max weight capacity of cargo hook.
  12. 2000
  13. 1800
  14. 1000
  15. 1500
  16. ______denotes urgency to land at first safe landing site.
  17. Land immediately
  18. Land as soon as practicable
  19. Land as soon as possible
  20. Land whenever you want
  21. ______will be used when a procedure is recommended.
  22. Shall
  23. Will
  24. May
  25. Should
  26. The tail boom is a ______structure made of aluminum alloy.
  27. Internal frame
  28. Partial monocoque
  29. Semi- monocoque
  30. Full- monocoque
  31. What instrument measured the difference between impact air pressure from the pitot tube and static air pressure from static vents?
  32. VSI
  33. Airspeed indicator
  34. Barometric Altimeter
  35. Radar Altimeter
  36. The Cargo Hook assembly is attached so that weight lifted is in line with the main rotor causing no change in the Center of Gravity(CG).
  37. True
  38. False
  39. Illumination of the SPARE caution light during flight is treated as ______.
  40. Land as soon as practicable.
  41. Land immediately
  42. Land as soon as possible
  43. Continue normal operation.
  44. ______is used to indicate to indicate futurity and does not require application of a procedure.
  45. Shall
  46. Will
  47. May
  48. Should
  49. The restraint harness locks automatically at ____ to ____ G’s.
  50. 2 to 3
  51. 1.5 to 3
  52. 1 to 2
  53. 1 to 2.5
  54. ______denotes a serious condition. Landing in trees, water or unsafe areas should be considered a last resort.
  55. Land immediately
  56. Land as soon as practicable
  57. Land as soon as possible
  58. Land whenever you want
  59. The vertical fin is a ______structure made of aluminum honey comb and aluminum skin.
  60. Internal frame
  61. Semi-monocoque
  62. Full- monocoque
  63. Partial-monocoque
  64. Gas temperatures displayed on the TOT gauge are read
  65. Between the compressor and combustion sections
  66. In the combustion section
  67. Between the gas producer turbine and the free power turbine
  68. By four thermocouples located in the exhaust collector
  69. When the anti-icing system is on, hot air is provided to the
  70. Compressor front support
  71. Axial compressor
  72. Centrifugal compressor
  73. Entire compressor section
  74. Max oil temp is _____ degrees celcius.
  75. 98
  76. 100
  77. 105
  78. 107
  79. Hot air for the anti-icing system comes from the
  80. Compressor section
  81. Combustion section
  82. Turbine section
  83. Heater at 12 o’clock position on front of engine
  84. Minimum Ng during normal operations is
  85. 60
  86. 90
  87. 98
  88. 100
  89. Thermocouples which measure TOT are located
  90. In each exhaust stack
  91. On the outer case of the combustion section
  92. In the combustion liner
  93. Between the Nf and Ng turbines.
  94. During power transits, TOT may be 810 to 843 degrees Celsius for a max of
  95. 5 min
  96. 5 sec
  97. 6 min
  98. 10 sec
  99. The squirrel cage fan provides cool air for the oil cooler and is powered by the
  100. Electrical system
  101. Hydraulic system
  102. Accessory gearbox
  103. Tail rotor drive shaft
  104. ______% of air passing through the combustion chamber is for cooling.
  105. 50
  106. 66
  107. 75
  108. 80
  109. The Allison 250-C20J is derated to ______HP.
  110. 300
  111. 310
  112. 317
  113. 325
  114. Minimum engine oil pressure from 79%-94% Ng is ______psi.
  115. 50
  116. 90
  117. 100
  118. 115
  119. Red TOT light illuminates if temp exceeds ______degrees Celsius.
  120. 738
  121. 810
  122. 843
  123. 927
  124. Max TOT during normal operations is ______degrees Celsius.
  125. 738
  126. 810
  127. 843
  128. 927
  129. During normal power transients, Nr may reach 114 for
  130. 5 min
  131. 5 sec
  132. 6 sec
  133. 10 sec
  134. Max torque during normal operation is
  135. 60
  136. 85
  137. 90
  138. 100
  139. What component of the TH-57 fuel supply system increases fuel pressure to between 650-700 psi.
  140. In line recirculating pump
  141. Forward boost pump
  142. Aft boost pump
  143. Engine fuel pump
  144. Fuel pump caution light will illuminate if fuel pressure falls below ____ psi.
  145. 10
  146. 5
  147. 4
  148. 3.5
  149. What is the max fuel pressure permitted during closed circuit (pressure) refueling of the TH-57?
  150. 75
  151. 85
  152. 30
  153. 40
  154. The fuel low caution light first illuminates when there is less than ____ gallons of fuel remaining in the fuel cell.
  155. 10
  156. 16
  157. 18
  158. 20
  159. If both fuel boost pumps fail, at what altitude will in-line fuel vaporization occur?
  160. 2000
  161. 3000
  162. 5000
  163. 6000
  164. The FCU receives fuel at what pressure?
  165. 4-30
  166. 100-300
  167. 450-550
  168. 650-750
  169. The engine driven fuel pump and filter assembly are located on the
  170. Forward right side of the engine firewall
  171. Forward accessory take off gear of the transmission assembly
  172. Forward right side of the power accessory gear box
  173. Aft port side of the accessory gear box
  174. The airframe fuel filter is located in the engine compartment
  175. On the left side of the forward firewall
  176. On the right side of the aft firewall
  177. On the right side of the forward firewall
  178. On the left side of the aft firewall
  179. What component automatically stops flow of fuel when the fuel cell reached capacity during pressure refueling?
  180. FCU
  181. Shut off valve
  182. Closed circuit receiver
  183. Fuel fill metering switch
  184. Excess fuel at the fuel nozzle is returned to the
  185. Fuel cell
  186. Engine driven pump by the shut off valve bypass switch
  187. Engine driven pump by the FCU
  188. Airframe mounted filter bowl
  189. The low fuel caution light illuminates when fuel reaches what level?
  190. 10 gal
  191. 15 gal
  192. 20 gal
  193. 25 gal
  194. The engine driven fuel pump discharges fuel at a pressure of ______psi
  195. 35-50
  196. 125-150
  197. 450-600
  198. 650-750
  199. Illumination of the airframe fuel filter lite indicates
  200. Inlet fuel pressure has dropped below 35 psi
  201. Outlet fuel pressure has dropped below 35 psi
  202. Impending bypass of the A/F fuel Filter
  203. A failure in the FCU
  204. Fuel flow is controlled by the pilot using
  205. And electrically operated valve mounted in the fuel cell
  206. An electrically operated shut off valve
  207. A mechanically driven bypass valve on the engine driven fuel pump
  208. A mechanically driven shut off valve
  209. Boost pump pressure is relayed to the cockpit pressure gauge by
  210. Fuel pressure transducer
  211. Fuel pressure bypass switch
  212. Electrical pressure meter
  213. Mechanical pressure meter
  214. The TH-57 fuel cell is
  215. Dual bladder cell with 91 gal capacity
  216. Single bladder crash resistant cell with 76 gal capacity
  217. Single bladder self sealing cell with 91 gal capacity
  218. Crash resistant with 91 gal capacity
  219. In the event of a boost pump failure a pilot should not pull the C/B’s to identify which pump failed until below
  220. 4000’ PA
  221. 4000’ MSL
  222. 6000’ MSL
  223. 6000’ PA
  224. The transmission oil pump drive shaft also drives which of the following components in the accessory gear drive?
  225. Pressure regulating valve and oil cooling fan
  226. Hydraulic oil pump and Nr tach gen
  227. Spray jets and oil cooler
  228. Ng and Nf turbines
  229. The barbell shaft is located between what components of the TH-57?
  230. Engine and transmission
  231. Transmission and rotor mast
  232. Transmission and tail rotor drive shaft
  233. Ng and Nf turbines
  234. The last step in sprag clutch slippage emergency procedures is if the sprag clutch re-engages is to
  235. Land immediately
  236. Land as soon as practical
  237. Land as soon as possible
  238. Continue normal flight
  239. What are the two functions of the tail rotor gearbox?
  240. Provide geared increase and 45 degree directional change
  241. Provide geared increase and 90 degree directional change
  242. Provide geared decrease and 45 degree directional change
  243. Provide geared decrease and 90 degree directional change
  244. The main transmission uses what type of lubrication system?
  245. Splash type
  246. Wet sump/pressure*
  247. Dry sump/pressure
  248. Pressure type
  249. The OIL TRANS PRES caution light illuminates when oil pressure falls below
  250. 30 psi
  251. 32 psi
  252. 34 psi
  253. 35 psi
  254. What type of lubrication system does the tail rotor gearbox use.
  255. Spray jet
  256. Splash type
  257. Forced pressure
  258. Submerged
  259. How many hanger bearings support the 6 tail rotor drive shaft?
  260. 1
  261. 5
  262. 6
  263. 7
  264. The barbell shaft provides for a flexible connection between the engine and transmission.
  265. True
  266. False
  267. In the event of high or low transmission oil pressure the pilot should
  268. Land as soon as possible
  269. Land as soon as practicable
  270. Land immediately
  271. Continue normal operations
  272. In the event of high transmission oil temperature the pilot should
  273. Land as soon as possible
  274. Land as soon as practicable
  275. Land immediately
  276. Continue normal operations
  277. The tail rotor drive shaft rotates at ______RPM and is reduced to approximately ______RPM and 100% Nr.
  278. 5000, 1854
  279. 4000, 1554
  280. 6000, 2554
  281. 4500, 2300
  282. What is the transmission oil temperature gauge protected by in the TH-57?
  283. XMSN OIL TEMP C/B
  284. XMSNIND relay
  285. Transmission oil temp circuit breaker
  286. Engine XMSN IND C/B
  287. In addition to indication from the dual tachometer, barbell shaft failure may also be determined by
  288. Right yaw and vibration
  289. Left yaw and loud noise or bang
  290. Low freq vibration
  291. High freq vibration
  292. The oil transmission pressure caution light is electrically protected by what type of device?
  293. On/Off switch
  294. Relay
  295. Fuse plug
  296. C/B
  297. The transmission chip light illuminates when metal particles contact the chip detector in the free wheeling unit.
  298. True
  299. False
  300. What type of materials are the drive shafts aft of the oil cooling fan rod made of?
  301. Cast magnesium
  302. Steel
  303. Aluminum
  304. Titanium
  305. What component is used to dynamically balance the tail rotor?
  306. Static Stop
  307. Balance wheel
  308. Pitch change horns
  309. Cross head
  310. Moving the collective upward causes which component to move downward?
  311. Collective lever
  312. Rotating swashplate
  313. Unibar and pivot sleeve assembly
  314. Hydraulic servos
  315. How is the yoke mounted to the splined trunion?
  316. Tension torsion strap
  317. Latch bolt
  318. Yoke retention bolt
  319. Pillow blocks
  320. How is the tension torsion strap attached to the inboard part of the yoke?
  321. Latch bolt
  322. Through bolt
  323. Retention cap and pin
  324. Pillow block
  325. What component receives input from the pitch control tube and causes the blade grips to change pitch?
  326. Pitch change horns
  327. Tension torsion strap
  328. Yoke assembly
  329. Splined trunion
  330. What connects the blade grip to the tension torsion strap?
  331. Through bolt
  332. Latch bolt
  333. Retention cap/pin
  334. Pillow blocks
  335. The tail rotor is a two blade ______
  336. Semi-rigid
  337. Semi-articulated
  338. Fully-articulated
  339. Rigid
  340. What component is responsible for maintaining high rotational inertia for auto rotations?
  341. Tension torsion strap
  342. Yoke assembly
  343. Blade weights
  344. Blade doublers
  345. Applying left anti-torque pedal will ______tail rotor pitch.
  346. Increase
  347. Decrease
  348. No effect
  349. Don’t know
  350. The collective control stick uses a
  351. Collective brake
  352. Force trim button
  353. Star wheel adjuster
  354. Friction adjuster
  355. What provides the flapping axis for the main rotor?
  356. Splined trunion
  357. Yoke
  358. Mast
  359. Tension torsion straps
  360. How is the tension torsion strap attached to the inboard part of the yoke?
  361. Latch bolt
  362. Through bolt
  363. Retention cap and pin
  364. Pillow block
  365. What is retreating blade stall?
  366. When forward airspeed reduces rotational flow to the point which the retreating blade operates beyond it’s critical stall angle
  367. What does the tension torsion strap do?
  368. Absorbs centrifugal force and loads and twists to pitch angles.
  369. The blade grips are the mounting point for?
  370. Rotor blades and pitch change horns
  371. How is blade strength increased in the TH-57?
  372. Bonding doublers and grip drag planes
  373. Where are blade weights added to the rotor blades?
  374. Mid span and blade tips
  375. How many degrees of preconing is on the yoke?
  376. 2 ¼
  377. The flap restraint assembly prevents damage to what part of the aircraft at low rotor RPM?
  378. Tailboom
  379. What is the normal operating system pressure of the rotor brake?
  380. 100-120 psi
  381. Between what range of Nr should the rotor brake be engaged?
  382. 30-38 %
  383. What are the main components of the tail rotor system?
  384. Rotor blades, pitch change horns, cross head, control tube, balance wheel, static stop, and yoke assembly
  385. What are the tail rotor blades made of?
  386. Aluminum honeycomb with stainless steel skin
  387. What limits tail rotor flapping?
  388. Static stops
  389. Why and how much is the tail rotor trunion offset?
  390. Less than 90 degrees to remove geometric imbalance
  391. What is used to dynamically balance the tail rotor?
  392. Balancing wheel
  393. What are the 3 flight controls?
  394. Cyclic, Collective, anti-torque pedals
  395. How are the control inputs from the cyclic transmitted to the mixing lever?
  396. Through a single yoke
  397. What do the rotating controls consist of?
  398. Rotating swash plate, pitch change tubes, pitch change horns
  399. What is the uni-ball?
  400. The mounting point for the stationary swashplate
  401. What is the hydraulic reservoir capacity?
  402. 1 quart
  403. 2 quarts
  404. 1 pint
  405. 3/8 pint
  406. Hydraulic pressure is regulated to ______psi.
  407. 650- 750 +/- 50
  408. 600 +/- 50
  409. 650- 750 +/- 30
  410. 600 +/- 30
  411. The hydraulic pressure light illuminates below _____ psi and extinguishes above ____ psi.
  412. 300, 400
  413. 400, 300
  414. 400, 600
  415. 650, 750
  416. The hydraulic system is powered by
  417. Tail rotor drive shaft
  418. Electrical system
  419. Transmission accessory drive shaft
  420. Engine bleed air system
  421. DC power is required to turn off the hydraulic system.
  422. True
  423. False
  424. The force trim system
  425. Eliminates feedback from the main rotor
  426. Provides artificial feel for the cyclic
  427. Eliminates feedback from the main rotor and tail rotor
  428. Provides artificial feel for the cyclic and collective
  429. In the event of hydraulic system failure, your first action should be to
  430. Adjust airspeed
  431. Land
  432. Autorotate
  433. Ensure hydraulic boost off
  434. Operation of the force trim system requires
  435. DC power
  436. AC power
  437. DC and AC power
  438. No electrical power if hydraulic boost is on
  439. To aid in cooling the hydraulic reservoir, cooling air is directed from
  440. Front engine mount
  441. DC powered fan mounted on the bulkhead
  442. ECS system
  443. Engine oil cooler blower
  444. The force trim system is activated
  445. By the top button on the cyclic
  446. By the middle button on the cyclic
  447. Automatically when the hydraulic boost is on
  448. Automatically when the hydraulic system pressure rises above 400 psi
  449. Hydraulic system circuit breakers
  450. Are not accessible from the cockpit
  451. Remove hydraulic pressure from the hydraulic servo actuators
  452. Will open if the system filter becomes clogged
  453. Are in different positions in the B and C models
  454. Normal hydraulic system pressure is
  455. 300
  456. 400
  457. 500
  458. 600
  459. Hydraulic system pressure is read
  460. Within the reservoir
  461. Between the reservoir and the filter
  462. Downstream of the filter
  463. Within the collective servo actuator
  464. What is the purpose of the hydraulic system?
  465. Reduce pilot workload
  466. What are the primary components of the hydraulic system?
  467. Power pack, solenoid valve, servos, filter and pressure switch
  468. What does the Power pack consist of?
  469. Reservoir, pump, pressure regulator valve, rotor tach gen, and mounting pad
  470. What are the major components of the servo actuator?
  471. Sequence valve, pilot valve, and differential relief valve
  472. What admits ambient air into the ventilation system?
  473. Axial blower
  474. Flapper valve
  475. Defroster nozzle
  476. Electric fan
  477. What compensates for the lack of ram air in a hover?
  478. Axial blower
  479. Flapper valve
  480. Defroster nozzle
  481. Electric fan
  482. The tail rotor driveshaft is connected by a drivebelt to the
  483. Condenser
  484. Evaporator
  485. Compressor
  486. Compressor fan
  487. In the old bravo, relative humidity of the ambient air is reduced by _____ percent during the heat transfer stage.
  488. 25
  489. 30
  490. 50
  491. 75
  492. The defog system works best in conjunction with
  493. Ventilation system
  494. Flapper valve
  495. Bleed air heater
  496. Evaporator
  497. What does the air condition system consist of?
  498. Engine driven compressor, condenser, condenser blower, evaporator, evaporator blower, switches
  1. How much power does the engine driven compressor take from the engine?
  2. 5 HP
  3. What operates when the ECS switch is in fan?
  4. Forward blowers and evaporator fan
  5. What powers the old bravo’s ECS?
  6. Compressor Bleed air
  7. What is one advantage of the old bravo’s ECS?
  8. It doesn’t require a separate heating system
  9. The five major components to supply ambient air to the cockpit and windscreen are?
  10. Grill, flapper valve, axial blower, defroster nozzle, and vertical control knobs
  11. What is the power rating of the generator?
  12. 30 VDC, 150 ampere hours
  13. 28 VDC, 105 ampere hours
  14. 24 VDC, 117 ampere hours
  15. 150 VDC, 28 ampere hours
  16. Which of the following does the reverse current relay perform?
  17. Connects the generator to the common BUS only when the proper voltage is obtained
  18. Prevents current flow from the generator to the battery
  19. Disconnect the generator from the common bus when voltage climbs above a safe level
  20. Maintains the variable current at a stable 100 ampere hours
  21. What are the three power sources for the TH-57B?
  22. Battery, Standby generator, Main generator
  23. Starter/generator, external battery, auxiliary power unit
  24. Main battery, standby battery, main generator
  25. Starter/generator, battery, and external power unit
  26. What are loadmeter and voltmeter indications of a generator failure?
  27. Loadmeter 22-24 Volts / Voltmeter 0
  28. Loadmeter 0 Volts / Voltmeter 22-24
  29. Loadmeter less than 50 Volts / Voltmeter less than 32
  30. Loadmeter 100 Volts (full) / Voltmeter normal generator voltage
  31. When does the over voltage relay trip to generator reset?
  32. When the line voltage reaches 28 +/- 0
  33. When the line voltage reaches 31 +/- 1
  34. When the line voltage reaches 31 +/- 0
  35. When the line voltage reaches 28 +/- 1
  36. What action should be taken with generator failure or battery off or exhausted and why?
  37. Descend below 6000 feet PA and Land as soon as possible: both fuel boost pumps are inoperative
  38. Land as soon as possible: engine igniters will not sustain engine power without electricity
  39. Land as soon as practical: UHF / VHF have limited time on battery power
  40. Land as soon as practical: the pilots attitude indicator will display accurate data for only 6 minutes after power failure
  41. What are the power requirements for external starts?
  42. 32 VDC, 105 ampere hours
  43. 32 VDC, 150 ampere hours
  44. 23 VDC, 400 ampere hours
  45. 28 VDC, 400 ampere hours
  46. Sustained loadmeter indications above 70%
  47. May be caused by and electrical fire
  48. Are normal
  49. Indicate voltmeter failure
  50. Are normal when operating on external power
  51. When do the igniters receive power?
  52. When the field control relay completes the circuit from the common BUS to the igniter and keeps these circuits connected until engine reaches self sustaining RPM
  53. When the field control relay completes the circuit from the common BUS to the igniter and keeps these circuits connected until engine reaches self sustaining RPM, and the starter switch is released
  54. Anytime Ng section is running
  55. Anytime the common BUS is powered from the battery or external power unit
  56. The battery temp light illuminates when the battery case reaches ____ +/- ___ C, and the battery hot light illuminates when the battery case reaches ____ +/- ___ C.
  57. 54, 3, 60, 3
  58. 60, 3, 54, 3
  59. 54, 0, 60, 0
  60. 54, 10, 60, 10
  61. What type of battery is used in the TH-57B
  62. Non vented lead acid battery
  63. Vented alkaline battery
  64. Vented nickel-cadmium battery
  65. 18 self contained, 1.25 volt nickel cadmium dry cells
  66. What is the purpose and location of the common bus?
  67. Connects battery power to the external power receptacle and is located in the battery compartment
  68. The distribution point for electrical equipment and is located behind the overhead circuit panel
  69. Connects the battery relay through the battery switch and is located in the overhead console
  70. Completes the switch circuit of the battery relay to ground and is located on the electrical equipment shelf
  71. What is the power rating of the battery?
  72. 24 VDC, 17 ampere hours
  73. 17 VDC, 24 ampere hours
  74. 24 – 17 VDC, 100 ampere hours
  75. 24 VDC, 32 ampere hours
  76. What causes the generator to act as the starter?
  77. The starter switch provides reverse DC power to the starter /generator and powers the igniters
  78. With the starter relay activated, the standby generator shunt field is opened
  79. With the starter relay activated, the generator shunt field is opened and the generator works as a starter
  80. With the starter relay activated, the reverse current relay reverses the current to the generator fields and the generator works as a starter
  81. Which of the following are components of the generator system
  82. Battery relay, voltmeter shunt, loadmeter C/B, and starter switch
  83. Reverse current relay, engine Ng section, voltage regulator and AC common bus
  84. Over – voltage relay, generator field relay, loadmeter shunt and generator field reset
  85. Under – voltage relay, base – voltage regulator, ESS BUS and starter shunt
  86. What switch allows the crew to transmit over a selected radio?
  87. Hot mike switch
  88. Cyclic trigger switch first detent
  89. Foot switch
  90. Cyclic trigger switch second detent
  91. Which switch controls volume on the UHF radio?
  92. Large knob on freq set
  93. Small knob on freq set
  94. Off/pull test
  95. Switch mounted on headset
  96. HSI course select knob is used to position the course pointer to ?
  97. Corrected magnetic compass heading
  98. Indicated course from standby compass
  99. Desired TACAN radial
  100. Desired VOR radial
  101. What is the indication that the HSI is receiving unreliable information from the NAV 1 receiver?
  102. Warning tones over ICS
  103. Compass warning flag
  104. NAV flag
  105. Heading flag
  106. What piece of equipment produces radio input to the RMI?
  107. UHF radio
  108. VOR NAV radio
  109. Transponder
  110. GYRO
  111. What communication console switch is used for VOR reception?
  112. AUX
  113. NAV
  114. Switch 1
  115. Switch 2
  116. What switch on the UHF radio allows the crew to monitor both guard and a selected channel frequency at the same time?
  117. Function selector switch
  118. ADF switch
  119. Guard
  120. Feature not available on UHF radio installed in TH-57B
  121. The searchlight, landing light, defog blower, ECS, and pitot heat should be secured prior to checking what system component?
  122. RMI deviation
  123. Gyro alignment
  124. Magnetic compass alignment
  125. NAV / Receiver
  126. What position should the transponder be set on to transmit a selected code on Mode 3/C?
  127. ALT
  128. ON
  129. TEST
  130. STBY
  131. What component of the HSI provides a visual reference for the helicopters magnetic heading as indicated by the compass card?
  132. Lubber line
  133. Course select pointer
  134. Heading select knob
  135. To – From indicator
  136. What EP step should be performed for gyro instrument failure?
  137. Shift scan to standby compass
  138. Shift scan to secondary gyro
  139. ResetDC generator bus
  140. Land as soon as possible
  141. What is the indication of power interruption to turn slip indicator?
  142. Caution light
  143. Red warning flag
  144. Tone over ICS
  145. NAV flag
  146. Descent below the altitude set in the radar altimeter causes the ______-______to illuminate and actuates a/an ______.
  147. Warning flag, emergency signal
  148. Caution light, auxiliary signal
  149. Altitude select, audible tone
  150. DH lamp, warning tone
  151. What is the UHF guard frequency?
  152. 243.0 kHz
  153. 243.0 MHz
  154. 255.0 kHz
  155. 255 MHz
  156. What are the power requirements for engine start utilizing external power (Charlie Model)?
  157. Same as the TH-57B.