Final test Question Bank
____1. Physiology is best defined as the study of
a. the development of the body parts.
b. the framework of the body.
c. the structure of the body and it’s parts.
d. how the various body parts normally function.
e. the tissues that make up the various body parts.
_____2The study of tissues is called
a.gross anatomy
b.cytology
c.histology
d.organology
e.microbiology
_____3.The following is a list of several levels of organization that make up the human body:
1. tissue
2. cell
3. organ
4. molecule
5. organism
6. organ system
The correct order from the smallest to the largest level would be
a.2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 5
b.4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5
c.4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5
d.4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5
e.2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
_____4.Defense against infection and disease is a function of the
a.cardiovascular system
b.lymphatic system
c.respiratory system
d.urinary system
e.both a and d
_____5.The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed
a.positive feedback
b.homeostasis
c.negative feedback
d.effector control
e.none of the above
_____6.When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. this regulation mechanism is an example of
a.negative feedback
b.positive feedback
c.non-homeostatic regulation
d.diagnostic regulation
e.disease
_____7.The increasingly forceful labor contractions that lead to childbirth are an example of this type of mechanism
a.receptor activation
b.effector shutdown
c.negative feedback
d.positive feedback
e.none of the above
_____8.A person who is facing forward with arms at the sides and palms facing forward is said to be in the
a.supine position
b.prone position
c.anatomical position
d.frontal position
e.sagittal position
_____9.Which indicates the front of the body?
a.anterior
b.posterior
c.dorsal
d.ventral
e.both a and d
_____10.Which of the following is lateral to the nose?
a.eyes
b.forehead
c.scalp
d.chin
e.chest
_____11.The knee is considered ______to the hip.
a.proximal
b.distal
c.anterior
d.posterior
e.none of the above
_____12.The umbilicus is ______to the chest.
a.anterior
b.superior
c.posterior
d.inferior
e.lateral
_____13.The cranial cavity and spinal cavity would be found in the
a.dorsal body cavity
b.peritoneal cavity
c.pleural cavity
d.ventral body cavity
e.abdominopelvic cavity
_____14.The diaphragm separates the ______cavity from the ______cavity.
a.pleura; mediastinum
b.thoracic; abdominopelvic
c.pericardial; pleural
d.abdominal; pelvic
e.pericardial sac; pericardial
_____15.The mediastinum separates ______from the ______.
a.the pleural cavity; coelom
b.the thoracic cavity; peritoneal cavity
c.one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity
d.the abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
e.the pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
____ 16. In making an anatomical display a cadavar is cut vertically into right and left parts which are unequal, exposing the inner parts for inspection .This type of section (plane) is called
a. parasagittal
b. sagittal
c. frontal
d. transverse
e. coronal
____ 17. A horizontal cut that separates the upper body from the lower body is known as…
a. parasagittal
b. sagittal
c. frontal
d. transverse
e. coronal
____ 18. In a human, the “upper and lower” from the previous question would be which of the
following?
a. Anterior/posterior
b. Superior/inferior
c. Proximal/distal
d. Medial/lateral
e.Dorsal/ventral
_____19.Which sectional plane could divide the body so that the face remains intact?
a.sagittal plane
b.coronal plane
c.equatorial plane
d.midsagittal plane
e.none of the above
_____20.Organs situated within the mediastinum include:
a.heart, lungs, and esophagus
b.heart, esophagus, and trachea
c.thyroid, lungs, and liver
d.pancreas, liver, and spleen
e.stomach, pancreas, and heart
1. The four chemical elements that make up 94 percent of the weight of the human body are:
A. oxygen, nitrogen, sodium, and ironB. carbon, calcium, nitrogen, and phosphorous
C. hydrogen, potassium, oxygen, and calciumD. carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen
2. Chemical reactions occur between the smallest units of matter called:
A. atomsB. cells
C. elementsD. molecules
3. The nucleus of an atom is the location of which kinds of subatomic particles?
A. electronsB. protons and electrons
C. neutrons and protonsD. neutrons and electrons
4. When an atom loses one or more electrons, it:
A. becomes a cationB. becomes an anion
C. forms a covalent bondD. becomes a different kind of atom
5. All atoms with the same atomic number are grouped into
A. moleculesB. cells
C. compoundsD. elements
E. none of the above
6. The atomic weight of an element indicates…
A. the mass of the protons onlyB. the mass of neutrons only
C. the mass of the electronsD. A and B
E. A and C
7. The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by
A. the number of protonsB. the number of neutrons
C. the number and arrangement of the electronsD. the mass of the atom
8. The weakest bond that occurs in living organisms is...
A. ionicB. covalent
C. polar covalentD. metallic
E. hydrogen
9. Ionic bonds are formed when…
- atoms share electrons
- cations and anions are held together by their opposite charges
- a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms
- hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms in the same or different molecules
- two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time
10. Which of the following is true regarding a covalent bond?
A. it is less stable than an ionic bondB. it is formed by losing or gaining electrons
C. it is the most common bond found in the living thingsD. it is found in a bond containing Na & Cl
11. The chemical reaction illustrated by the following – (A + BAB) is a:
A. decomposition reactionB. synthesis reaction
C. catabolic processD. replacement reaction
12. Identify the reaction type represented by the following – AB + C AC + B
A. decomposition reactionB. synthesis reaction
C. catabolic processD. replacement reaction
13. In the human body many smaller glucose molecules may combine to form the larger starch molecule for
storage. This is an example of…
A. a catabolic processB.an anabolic process
C. respirationD. an ionic bond
14. A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
A. acidicB. basic
C. neutralD. alkaline
D. none of the above
15. Which of the following substances would be least acidic?
A. lemon juice, pH = 5.5B. urine, pH = 6
C. tomato juice, pH = 4D. white wine, pH = 3
E. stomach secretions, pH = 2
16. Which of the following is true with reference to the pH scale?
A. the lower the pH the more acidic it isB. the higher the pH the more acidic it is
C. the pH scale runs from 1-14D. the lower the pH the more basic it is
17. Which of the following is NOT an example of an inorganic compound?
A. waterB. acid
C. baseD. salt
E. enzyme
18. Which of the following statements about water is not correct?
A. It is composed of polar moleculesB. It makes up 2/3 of the human body’s mass
C. It has a relatively low specific heat capacityD. It dissolves many compounds
E. It contains hydrogen bonds
19. The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
A. sucroseB. starch
C. proteinD. vitamin B12
E. glucose
20. The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in near 1:2:1 ratio is defined
as a
A. carbohydrateB. lipid
C. proteinD. nucleic acid
E. none of above
21. A fatty acid that contains three double covalent bonds in its carbon chain is said to be
A. saturatedB. polyunsaturated
C. monounsaturatedD. monosaturated
22. Buffers are substances found in the body that function to:
A. prevent drastic pH changesB. are found in body fluids such as blood
C. are weak acids or bases and their saltsD. all of the answers are correct
23. Which of the following pertains correctly to the synthesis of a disaccharide molecule?
A. a hydration (addition of water) occursB. a molecule of water is formed
C. galactose is formedD. water is not involved
24. The immediate energy for use in cellular metabolic activities:
A. is released by the oxidation of glucoseB. comes from the breakdown of ATP to ADP
C. results from the formation of ADP from AMPD. involves the enzyme adenylic dehydrogenase
25. You would expect to find a peptide bond linking
A. two simple sugarsB. one amino acid to another
C. two nucleotidesD. a fatty acid and a glycerol molecule
E. a cholesterol molecule and a fatty acid molecule
26. The molecules that store and process information are known as…
A. carbohydratesB. nucleic acids
C. proteinsD. enzymes
27. Proteins differ from carbohydrates chemically because they contain…
A. NitrogenB. Hydrogen
C. OxygenD. Carbon
28. After adding the appropriate chemicals, a positive test for starch would be:
A. a color range from green to orange after heatingB. a lavender color change
C. the dissolving of a red stain D. the formation of dark blue to black
29. After adding the appropriate chemicals a positive test for protein would be:
A. a color range from green to orange after heatingB. a lavender color change
C. the dissolving of a red stain D. the formation of dark blue to black
30. The test for reducing sugars is known as:
A. Benedict’sB. Biurets
C. Sudan IVD. KI and NaOCl
1.The basic structural and functional unit of the human body is
a.protein
b.the cell
c.tissue
d.the organ
e.the organ system
2.The watery medium that surrounds a cell is known as
a.cytosol
b.protoplasm
c.extracellular fluid
d.cytoplasm
e.a colloidal gel
3.Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?
a.separation of the cytoplasm from the extracellular fluid
b.regulation of exchange of materials with the environment
c.sensitivity to changes in the extracellular fluid
d.structural support
e.controling movement into the nucleus
4.Structurally, the plasma membrane
a.is composed of a bilayer of proteins
b.is composed of a bilayer of lipids
c.is composed of only carbohydrate molecules
d.is a complex combination of carbohydrates and proteins
e.is a complex combination of carbohydrates and lipids
5.Cell membranes are said to be
a.impermeable
b.freely permeable
c.selectively permeable
d.actively permeable
e.none of the above
6.The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of
a.osmosis
b.active transport
c.diffusion
d.facilitated diffusion
e.filtration
7.The movement of water across a membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is known as
a.osmosis
b.active transport
c.diffusion
d.facilitated diffusion
e.filtration
8.A solution that contains a lower solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is called
a.holotonic
b.hypertonic
c.isotonic
d.hypotonic
e.semitonic
9.Crenation occurs when a blood cell is placed in a
a.isotonic solution
b.hypertonic solution
c.hypotonic solution
d.holotonic solution
e.none of the above
10.The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called
a.osmosis
b.passive transport
c.active transport
d.osmosis
e.exocytosis
11.A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called
a.active transport
b.passive transport
c.facilitated transport
d.osmosis
e.diffusion
12.The process by which vesicles containing solid objects such as bacteria are formed on the surface of a cell for transport into the cell is called
a.pinocytosis
b.phagocytosis
c.exocytosis
d.receptor-mediated endocytosis
e.none of the above
13.Flagella move a cell through a fluid medium. What moves the fluid medium across the surface of cells?
a.centrioles
b.thick filaments
c.cilia
d.ribosomes
e.endoplasmic reticula
14.Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
a.ribosomes
b.endoplasmic reticulum
c.nucleus
d.mitochondria
e.Golgi apparatus
15.The fluid within mitochondria is called
a.cristae
b.cytosol
c.cytoplasm
d.matrix
e.none of the above
16.Renewal or modification of the cell membrane is a function of the
a.microtubules
b.mitochondria
c.rough ER
d.ribosomes
e.Golgi apparatus
17.When activated, lysosomes function in
a.the formation of new cell membranes
b.the synthesis of proteins
c.digestion of foreign material
d.the synthesis of lipids
e.cell division
18.The cell's DNA is located in the
a.ribosomes
b.nucleolus
c.lysosomes
d.nucleus
e.Golgi complex
19.The control center for cellular operations is the
a.nucleus
b.nucleolus
c.cell membrane
d.Golgi apparatus
e.none of the above
20.The complex structures of DNA and protein found in the cell nucleus are called
a.nucleoplasms
b.chromosomes
c.mitochondria
d.nucleolemmas
e.nucleoli
21.All of the triplet codes needed to produce a specific polypeptide chain are found in a(n)
a.chromosome
b.gene
c.codon
d.anticodon
e.none of the above
22.As each codon binds at the active site of a ribosome, it interacts with another molecule. This molecule is called
a.DNA
b.mRNA
c.ribosomal RNA
d.tRNA
e.rough ER
23.Which of the following sequences is correct?
a.DNA - tRNA - mRNA - protein
b.DNA - ribosome - mRNA - protein
c.DNA - mRNA - tRNA - protein
d.DNA - mRNA - rRNA - protein
e.none of the above
24.The process of forming mRNA is called
a.replication
b.transcription
c.translation
d.ribolation
e.protein synthesis
25.The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called
a.prophase
b.metaphase
c.interphase
d.telophase
e.anaphase
26.During this phase of cell division, the nuclear membrane forms, the chromosomes uncoil, and cytokinesis may occur.
a.anaphase
b.prophase
c.interphase
d.telophase
e.metaphase
27.During the process of mitosis, duplicated chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell during
a.anaphase
b.prophase
c.interphase
d.telophase
e.metaphase
28.Hemolysis occurs when a blood cell is placed into
a.isotonic solution
b.hypertonic solution
c.hypotonic solution
d.holotonic solution
- none of the above
29.If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to
a.move
b.produce DNA
c.divide
d.synthesize proteins
e.metabolize sugars
30.Two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane with the same properties as a cell membrane. Solution A is 5% glucose and solution B is 10% glucose. Under these circumstances
a.water will move from solution A to solution B
b.water will move from solution B to solution A
c.glucose will move from solution A to solution B
d.glucose will move from solution B to solution A
e.at equilibrium the concentration of glucose will be higher in solution B
31.When sodium ion is moved across the cell membrane against its concentration gradient,
a.diffusion occurs
b.osmosis occurs
c.cellular ATP is used
d.vesicles are formed
e.the cell membrane changes shape
32.The anticodon for the triplet UCA would be
a.AGU
b.AGC
c.TCA
d.TGT
e.none of the above
33.The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA would be
a.ATC
b.TAG
c.UAG
d.AUG
e.none of the above
34.The cell membrane:
a.is a watery gel in which structures are suspended
b.contains the power house of the cell
c.is the central government of the cell
d.protects the cell and acts as a filter
e.carries the cell's hereditary information
35.Cellular organelles are located within the
a.cytoplasm
b.cell membrane
c.phospholipid bilayer
d.lipid droplets
e.chromosomes
36.Which of these is an example of carrier-mediated transport?
a.osmosis
b.facilitated diffusion
c.endocytosis
d.exocytosis
e.phagocytosis
37.The term "cancer" refers to:
a.any of various malignant neoplasms
b.neoplasms that have the tendency to metastasize to new sites
c.an illness characterized by malignant cells
d.all of the above
e.none of the above
38.Two types of RNA are:
a.mRNA
b.tRNA
c.dRNA
d.A and B
e.B and C
1. The type of tissue that is the most abundant in the body usually has a rich blood supply and is
characterized by a large amount of intercellular material is :
A. vascular tissueB. muscle tissue
C. connective tissueD. glandular tissue
2. Which of the following are the types of fibers found in the spaces of loose connective tissue?
A. hyaloronic and mucous fibersB. elastic and collagenous fibers
C. hyaline and keratin fibersD. none of the above
3. The macrophage is an important cell found in the loose connective tissue and functions as:
A. a source of fiber in this tissueB. a chemical that stimulates dialation
C. a pigment cell beneath the epidermisD. a defense cell responsible for phagocytosis
4. Loose connective tissue is found in all of the following except:
A. dermisB. tendons and ligaments
C. around blood vessels and nervesD. mucous membranes
5. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of terms?
A. hyaline cartilage – intervertebral discB. elastic cartilage - tracheal rings
C. hyaline cartilage – embryonic skeletonD. fibrocartilage – costal region
6. Which of the types of membranes does not have an epithelial layer?
A. mucous membraneB. serous membrane
C. cutaneous membraneD. synovial membrane
7. A serous membrane :
A. is responsible for secreting joint fluid:B. lines a cavity with no connection to the exterior
C. is found in the respiratory tractD. may contain digestive enzymes
8. The type of cartilage that functions as a shock absorber in joints is
A. hyaline cartilageB. elastic cartilage
C. fibrocartilageD. all of these
9. The three types of muscle tissue are:
A. dense, loose, and striatedB. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
C. squamous, cuboidal, and columnarD. skeletal, smooth, and connective
10. The matrix consists of:
A. ground substance and fibersB. plasma and fibers
C. vascular tissue and boneD. a DJ and a dance floor
11. Where would histologists find simple ciliated columnar epithelium?
A. in the digestive tractB. in all living tissue
C. in the uterus and uterine tubesD. in the male reproductive tract
12. A cell with a single layer of cells that appear to be multi-layered best describes:
A. stratified tissueB. columnar tissue
C. pseudostratified tissueD. all of the above
13. Flat cells would be called:
A. squamousB. cuboidal
C. columnarD. transitional
14. The ground substance of the matrix consists of:
A. collagenB. hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate
C. cartilageD. collagenous and elastic fibers
15. The chemical responsible for adhesiveness in cartilage and bone is:
A. collagenB. hyaluronic acid
C. chondroitin sulfateD. heparin
- Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except one. Identify the exception
a.protection of underlying tissue
b.excretion
c.maintenance of body temperature
d.synthesis of vitamin C
e.nutrition and storage
2.The two components of the cutaneous membrane are the
a.epidermis and dermis
b.epidermis and subcutaneous layer
c.dermis and subcutaneous layer
d.integument and dermis
e.epidermis and superficial fascia
3.Accessory structures of the skin include
a.hair follicles
b.sebaceous and sweat glands
c.nails
d.a and b only
e.all of the above
4.The layer of the epidermis that contains cells undergoing division is the
a.stratum corneum
b.stratum lucidum
c.stratum germinativum
d.stratum granulosum
e.stratum spinosum
5.An epidermal layer found only in the skin of the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet is the