M.D. (Biochemistry)
PAPER I
General and Clinical Biochemistry
Maximum Marks – 100
UNIT I
Constituents of human cell, their structure & functions. Properties of cell membrane and transport across membrane. Cytoskeletons. Functions of muscle proteins, hemoglobin, albumin and porins.
UNIT II
Chemistry of blood clotting. Composition and diagnosis significance of cerebrospinal fluid and amniotic fluid. Acute phase proteins (hsp). Metabolic and respiratory acidosis and alkalosis.
UNIT III
Properties and catalytic behavior of enzymes. Enzyme kinetics and regulation. Mechanism of action of enzyme catalysis. Therapeutic uses of enzymes. Diagnostic significance of serum enzymes and isozymes.
UNIT IV
Quality control and automation in clinical biochemistry. Analysis of analytes in blood, urine and
cerebrospinal fluid. Biostatistics and its application in research and clinical biochemistry. Selection of statistical methods and their evaluation.
UNIT V
Sample size for designing experiments. Standard error. Standard deviation. Students ‘t’ test. Paired ‘t’ test. Chi-square test. Fisher’s exact test. Non-parametric tests of significance. Multivariate analysis methods. One-way and two-way analysis of variance. Multiple range tests.
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M.D. (Biochemistry)
PAPER II
Intermediary Metabolism and Bioenergetics
Maximum Marks – 100
UNIT I
Metaboliism of aromatic amino acids, proteins (excluding protein biosynthesis), carbohydrates, lipids, heme, purines and pyrimidines.
UNIT II
Interrelationships and regulation of metabolic pathways. Inborn errors of metabolism. Principles of bioenergetics, electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation.
UNIT III
Metabolism of Ca, Pi, and trace elements (Se, Zn, Cu, Fe). Role of Na, K, and Cl in homeostasis and related disorders. Regulation of acid-base balance.
UNIT IV
Biochemical functions of vitamins, their deficiency and toxicity. Vitamer. Vitamin-responsive inherited metabolic disorders. Role of vitamins in free radical homeostasis.
UNIT V
Chemistry and pathology of free radicals and antioxidants. Role of hormones in the regulation of metabolism and mechanism of their action. Consequences of hormone dysfunction. Eicosanoids.
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M.D. (Biochemistry)
PAPER III
Immunology and Molecular Biology
Maximum Marks – 100
UNIT I
Immune response. Cellular and protein components of the immune system. Antibody diversity and immunoglobulin genes. Multiple myeloma.
UNIT II
Complement. Antigen-antibody reactions. Monoclonal antibodies and their role in diagnostics and therapeutics. Cytokines. DNA vaccines. Principles of cloning.
UNIT III
Tumor immunology. Alpha fetoprotein and carcinoembryonic antigen. Growth factors and oncogenes. Carcinogenesis and p-53 gene. Genomics and Proteomics.
UNIT IV
Immunobiology of HIV and anti-HIV drugs. Stem cells and their possible role in therapy. Apoptosis, telomers and telomerase. Antisense therapy.
UNIT V
Regulation of replication, transcription and translation. Hormone responsive elements. Recombinant DNA Technology and its application. Human genome project and its implications.
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M.D. (Biochemistry)
PAPER IV
Biochemical and Molecular Biology Techniques
Maximum Marks – 100
UNIT I
Basic principles of sedimentation and analysis of sub-cellular fractions. HPLC, affinity chromatography, immunodiffusion.
UNIT II
Principles of electrophoresios, ultraviolet and visible light spectroscopy, circular dichrism spectroscopy and spectrofluorometry.
UNIT III
Band shift assay, array technology and DNA fingerprinting. ELISA and radioimmunoassay
UNIT IV
Immunoblotting and polymerase chain raction. Nanomedicine technology. Bioinformatics.
UNIT V
Gene cloning, restriction mapping of DNA fragments and cell culture. Enzyme engineering.
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M.D. (Biochemistry)
Model Question Paper
Paper-I
Attempt all questions. Maximum Marks: 100
Time: 3 hr
Q 1. a) Describe briefly the active transport mechanisms across cell membrane. (10 marks)
b) Write a short note on the structure and function of myoglobin. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) In HbC disease point mutation occurs at which position on the beta chain
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 26 (4) 121
(ii) Which of the following disease is not caused by a transport system defect
(1) hartnup’s disease ( 2) cystinuria (3) vitamin D resistant rickets (4) burton’s disease
Q 2. a) Discuss the role of fibrinogen in blood clotting. (10 marks)
b) State in brief the biochemical findings in respiratory acidosis. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Which of the following is not an acute phase protein?
(1) C–reactive protein ( 2) transcortin (3) cereloplasmin (4) alpha -1-anti trypsin
(ii) Sugar concentration is normal in CSF in which of the following
(1) brain tumour (2) bacterial meningitis (3) viral infection (4) tuberculous meningitis
Q 3. a) Describe in brief the allosteric regulation of enzyme activity. (10 marks)
b) State briefly the normal conc. and diagnostic significance of transaminases. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Therepeutic role of asparaginase is in
(1) acute lymphoblastic leukemia (2) chronic myeloid leukemia (3) pancreatic insufficiency
(4) emphysema
(ii) Which of the following isozymes of LDH is the fastest moving fraction on electrophoresis?
(1) LDH 1 (2) LDH 2 (3) LDH 3 (4) LDH 4
Q 4. a) Describe in brief the role of biostatistics in modern medicine. (10 marks)
b) State in brief the importance of automation in a clinical laboratory. (6 marks)
c) Multiple cholice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Normal concentration of glucose in CSF is
(1) 40-60 mg% (2) 40-85 mg % (3) 60-90 mg % (4) none of the above
(ii) Which of the following is present in maximum amount in normal urine?
(1) chloride (2) sodium (3) potassium (4) creatinine
Q 5. a) Describe briefly the different classes of models used in the analysis of variance. (10 marks)
b) What is a t-test , and what are its use? (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Classical ANOVA for balanced data does
(1) exploratory data analysis (2) comparisions of mean squares (3) coefficient estimates
(4) all of the above.
(ii) Which of the following is used to determine non random associations between two categorical variable?
(1) paired t- test (2) chi-square test (3) fisher exact test (4) none of the above
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M.D. (Biochemistry)
Model Question Paper
Paper-II
Attempt all questions. Maximum Marks: 100
Time: 3 hr
Q 1. a) Describe briefly the reactions involved in the metabolism of tyrosine. (10 marks)
b) Write a brief note on alpha oxidation of fatty acids. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Enzyme deficient in on Gierke’s disease is
(1) lysosomal maltase ( 2) muscle phosphorylase (3) glucose-6 phosphatase (4) none of the
Above
(iii) Chronic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia , and normal liver histology is seen in
(1) Dubin Johnson’s syndrome (2) Rotor’s syndrome (3) Gilbert’s disease (4) none of the above
Q 2. a) Describe the important findings and clinical features of maple syrup urine disease. (10 marks)
b) Write a brief note on uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) The enzyme phospholipase A2 is located on
(1) outer mitochondrial membrane (2) inner mitochondrial membrane (3) in between outer a
and inner membranes (4) in the mitochondrial matrix
(ii) The lipid which accumulates in Fabry’s disease is
(1)galactocerebroside (2) globoside (3) ceramide trihexoside (4) sphingomyelin
Q 3. a) Discuss briefly the factors which regulate blood calcium level. (10 marks)
b) State the important functions of magnesium in the body. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) In respiratory acidosis
(1) Pco2 > 45 mmHg (2) Pco2 < 35 mmHg (3) HCO3 > 33mmHg (4) none of the above
(ii) Normal daily requirement of iron by an adult male is approximately
(1) 500mg (2) 100mg (3) 20mg (4) none of the above
Q.4. a) Describe briefly the co-enzyme functions of folic acid, and its deficiency manifestations.
(10 marks)
b) Briefly state the biochemical role of vitamin E in the body. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Which is the physiologically active form of vitamin D?
(1) calcitriol (2) calcitonin (3) cholecalciferol (4) none of the above
(ii) Normal blood level of vitamin A is
(1) 1-25micro. g / dl (2) 25-50 micro.g /dl (3) 50-100 micro.g/dl (4) 100-200 micro.g/dl
Q. 5 a) Discuss briefly the role of free radicals in disease. (10 marks)
b) State briefly the important therapeutic uses of prostaglandins. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Which of the following hormones does not use cAMP as the second messenger?
(1) FSH (2) ACTH (3) glucagon (4) oxytocin
(ii) Which of the following hormones is a glycoprotein?
(1) GH (2) ACTH (3) LH (4) None of the above
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M.D. (Biochemistry)
Model Question Paper
Paper-III
Attempt all questions. Maximum Marks: 100
Time: 3 hr
Q. 1. a) Describe briefly the main functions of T lymphocytes. (10 marks)
b) Write a brief account on Bence jones proteinuria. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Molecular mass of native IgG is
(1) 1,46,000 (2) 1,85,000 (3) 3,85,000 (4) none of the above
(ii) Carbohydrate content is minimum in which of the following
(1) IgG (2) IgA (3) IgM (4) IgE
Q. 2. a) Discuss in brief the role of monoclonal antibodies as therapeutic agents. (10 marks)
b) Write a short note on : DNA vaccines. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Which of the following complements is mainly synthesized in the hepatocytes?
(1) C2 (2) C3 (3) C4 (4) C5
(ii) Which of the following antibodies can fix to mast cells and basophils?
(1) IgG (2) IgA (3) IgD (4) IgE
Q.3. a) Discuss briefly how p53 acts as a tumour suppressor gene. (10 marks)
b) Explain in brief how the protooncogene myc gets converted into an oncogene, in
Burkitts lymphoma. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Carcino embryogenic antigen can be detected in plasma, in all of the following cases
except
(1) CA colon (2) CA lung (3) CA breast (4) CA ovary
(ii) The p53 tumour suppressor gene is located on
(1) chromosome 10 (2) chromosome 15 (3) chromosome 17 (4) chromosome 20
Q. 4 a) Discuss briefly the main anti HIV drugs available today and their mode of action. (10 marks)
b) Explain what is meant by “anti sense therapy”. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Totipotent stem cells can be isolated from
(1) morula (2) outer cell layer of blastoctst (3) inner cell mass of blastocyst (4) none of the
above
(ii) In apoptosis the cytoskeleton of the cell is cleaved by
(1) caspase 1 (2) caspase 8 (3) caspase 3 (4) none of the above
Q. 5. a) Discuss briefly two important diseases associated with defects in DNA repair mechanisms.
(10 marks)
b) Explain how RFLP can be used in the molecular analysis of disease. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) The human genome project was launched in
(1) 1989 (2) 1990 (3) 1991 (4) 1992
(ii) Which of the following hormones binds to the enhancer region of DNA?
(1) GH (2) TSH (3) testosterone (4) prolactin.
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M.D. (Biochemistry)
Model Question Paper
Paper-IV
Attempt all questions. Maximum Marks: 100
Time: 3 hr
Q.1. a) Briefly describe density gradient centrifugation and its applications. (10 marks)
b) State briefly the components of a typical HPLC system. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Which of the following is not a variant of affinity chromatography?
(1) metal chelate chromatography (2) covalent chromatography
(3) dye- ligand chromatography (4) chiral chromatography
(ii) Which of the following is known as Ouchterlony technique?
(1) single immunodiffusion (2) radial immunodiffusion (3) double diffusion (4) none of the
above
Q.2. a) Describe briefly how 2D electrophoresis is performed and state its uses. (10 marks)
b) State the important applications / uses of MALDI -TOF mass spectrometry. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Fluorescence measurements are influenced by
(1) solvent effects (2) temperature effects (3) background effect (4) all of the above
(ii) A wave length shift to higher values is called
(1) blue shift ( 2) red shift (3) green shift (4) none of the above
Q. 3. a) Explain what is DNA microarray, and what are its uses. (10 marks)
b) Write a brief note on DNA fingerprinting. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Mutations in DNA samples can be detected by
(1) Southern blotting (2) DNA microchips (3) ligase chain reaction (4) all of the above
(ii) Which of the following is routinely used to measure the amount of thyroxine in blood?
(1) double antibody sandwich ELISA (2) triple antibody sandwich ELISA\
(3) competitive ELISA ( 4) none of the above
Q.4 a) Describe in brief the important applications of PCR. (10 marks)
b) State the main steps of immunoblotting. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) The ENCODE project aims to identify
(1) all proteins in the proteome (2) all functional elements in the genome
(3) all genes in the genome (4) none of the above
(ii) The HapMap database is for
(1) single nucleotide polymorphism (2) variable number tandem repeats
(3) information about individual human genes (4) none of the above
Q.5. a) Describe in brief the various applications of RFLP. (10 marks)
b) State the steps involved in gene cloning in bacteria. (6 marks)
c) Multiple choice questions. (4 marks)
(i) Matrigel used in feeder free cell culture is rich in
(1) laminin (2) collagen (3) heparan sulfate (4) all of the above
(ii) Growth of bacterial cells in culture can be determined by
(1) haemocytometer (2) colony counting (3) spectrophotometer (4) all of the above.
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