Choose the Correct Answer for Questions (1-90

Choose the correct answer for questions (1-90:

Question 1-4:

M.A. 35 years old female, her medical history include ongoing asthma, allergic rhinitis, gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD), and juvenile arthritis.

Her medication history indicates that she is currently taking the following medications:

Celecoxib 200 mg cap.

Cisapride 10 mg cap.

Ratadine 150 mg tab.

Cetirizine tab.

Montelukast 10 mg tab.

1. Which of medication should be taken with food, to enhance their absorption?

1. Cisapride
2. Cetirizine
3. Celecoxib
4. Ratadine
5. None of the above

1. Which medications are being taken for asthma and allergic reaction?

1. Cisapride
2. Cetirizine
3. Montelukast
4. Ratadine
5. B & C

1. Which drugs are being used to treat her arthritis?

1. Cisapride
2. Cetirizine
3. Celecoxib
4. Ratadine
5. None of the above

1. Which drugs are being used to treat her (GERD)?

1. Cisapride
2. Cetirizine
3. Montelukast
4. Ratadine
5. A & D

1. Which of the following cardiovascular agent is classified as a glycoside?

1. Nifedipine
2. Digoxin
3. Flecainide
4. Chlestyramine
5. Warfarin

1. Myopathy is an adverse effect of all the following agents except:

1. Atorvastatin.
2. Simvastatine
3. Rosuvastatine
4. Gemfibrozil
5. Colestipol

1. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately:

1. 1 g
2. 2 g
3. 3 g
4. 4 g
5. 5 g

1. Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

1. Regular insulin
2. Isophane insulin (NPH)
3. Protamine zinc insulin (PZT)
4. Semilent insulin
5. Ultralente insulin

1. All of the following drugs may enhance breast milk production by increasing prolactin

1. Haloperidol
2. Methyldopa
3. Metoclopramide
4. Bromocriptine
5. Theophylline

1. In the emergency department, the preferred first line therapy for asthma exacerbation is:

1. Theophylline
2. Beta-agonist
3. Corticosteroid
4. Cromolyn sodium
5. Antihistamine

1. The active ingredient in Rizalt tablet is:

1. Rizatriptan
2. Pregabalin
3. Amlodipine
4. Duloxetine
5. Tinidazole

1. The manufacturer of Rizalt is:

1. MSD
2. Pfizer
3. Novartis
4. Leo
5. Lilly

1. Rizalt is indicated in:

1. Hypertension
2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Heart failure
5. Migraine attacks

1. The medicine which have same active ingredient of cialis is:

1. Viagra
2. Siafil
3. Sinagra
4. V-care
5. A & C& D

1. Diclofenac-sodium is the active ingredient of:

1. Anaflam
2. Voltaren
3. Mesulid
4. Tramal
5. None of the above

1. Used in the treatment of herpes zoster:

1. Acyclovir
2. Dimethindene
3. Loratidine
4. Zinc oxide
5. None of the above

1. Used for the treatment of anaerobic bacterial infection

1. Gentamicin
2. Fucidic acid
3. Metronidazole
4. Cephalexin
5. None of the above

1. One of the following substances is soluble in water:

1. Tetracycline
2. Paracetamol
3. Ascorbic acid
4. Vitamin K
5. Indomethacin

1. Used in alopecia treatment:

1. Enalapril
2. Clonidine
3. Hydralazine
4. Atenolol
5. Minoxidil

1. Classified as controlled drug:

1. Indomethacin
2. Etodalac
3. Nimesulid
4. Rivotril
5. Lamotrigine

1. Used in fungal infection treatment:

1. Atorvastatin
2. Metronidazole
3. Itraconazole
4. Clindamycin
5. Neomycin

1. Used in polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS)

1. Glimepride
2. Exenatide
3. Metformin
4. Glibenclamide
5. None of the above

1. Pantinol plus ® cream is manufactured by:

1. Beirzeit (BPC)
2. Gama
3. Sandoz
4. Pharmacare
5. Novartis

1. Contains bromocriptine as active ingredient:

1. Lactopar
2. Parilac
3. Parlodel
4. A & B & C
5. None of the above

1. All of these statements about (Pred-forte®) eye drops are true except:

1. Used in fungal infection treatment
2. Contains prednisolone as an active ingredient
3. Used with caution in glaucoma patient
4. Not to be used more than 2 weeks
5. Manufactured by allergen company

1. All of these statements about Trufen are true except:

1. Can cause peptic ulcer
2. Must be used with caution in hypertensive patients
3. Can cause addiction
4. Available as 200, 400, 600 mg strengths
5. Manufactured by Jepharm

1. (-40) Celsius degree is equal to

1. – 60 Fahrenheit
2. 60 Fahrenheit
3. 80 Fahrenheit
4. 100 Fahrenheit
5. 40 Fahrenheit

1. All of these statements about paracetamol is true except:

1. Category B drugs, so it is safe during pregnancy
2. 150 mg strength is used for infants
3. Hepatitis is the main complication from paracetamol overdose
4. Has anti-inflammatory effect
5. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for paracetamol overdose

1. The medicine used to treat heparin overdose is:

1. High dose of aspirin
2. Atropine sulfate
3. Vitamin K
4. Paracetamol
5. Protamin sulfate

1. One of these following antibiotics can be used in pregnancy:

1. Tetracycline
2. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
3. Ciprofloxacin
4. Gentamicin
5. Cefuroxime

1. Opioids are used as all of the following agents except

1. Antitussives
2. Analgesics
3. Anti-inflammatory
4. Antidiarrheals
5. Preanesthetic medications

1. Which of the following choices would be most appropriate in treating nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness?

1. Diphenhydramine
2. Brompheniramine
3. Ondansetron
4. Omeprazole
5. Ranitidine

1. Which of the following antiulcer medications is most likely to cause drug interaction and endocrine side effects

1. Ranitidine
2. Omeprazole
3. Lansoprazole
4. Cimetidine
5. Famotidine

1. The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibitors have been associated with which of the following adverse drug reactions?

1. Severe ischemic colitis
2. Torsade des pointes
3. Cardiovascular thrombotic events
4. Acute liver failure
5. Churg-Strauss syndrome

1. BC has an upper respiratory infection. Two years ago she experienced an episode of bronchospasm after penicillin therapy. Current cultures are positive for a strain of Streptococcus pneumonia that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient?

1. Amoxicillin/ clavulanate
2. Azithrimycin
3. Ampicillin
4. Cefaclor
5. Cefdinir

1. Which of the following medications would be considered first-line monotherapy for an acute episode of mania?

1. Gabapentin
2. Lithium
3. Lamotrigine
4. Haloperidol
5. Sertraline

1. Osteoporosis is associated with the use of which of the following drugs used in rheumatoid arthritis (RA).

1. Leflunomide
2. Prednisone
3. Methotrexate
4. Penicillamine
5. Hydroxychloroquine

1. Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following except:

1. Gastrointestinal ulceration
2. Renal dysfunction
3. Enhanced methotrexate toxicity
4. Cardiac arrhythmias
5. Hypersensitivity asthma.

1. All of the following are correct regarding infection prophylaxis in an organ transplant patient except:

1. Trimethoprime-sulfamethoxazole for pneumocytiscarinii pneumonia prophylaxis
2. Nystatin for fungal infection
3. Oral acyclovir for herpes simplex
4. Clotrimazole troche for oral thrush
5. Levofloxacin for urinary tract infection

1. Two most important sites for drug elimination:

1. Pulmonary and liver
2. Liver and GIT
3. Kidney and liver
4. Skin and liver
5. Pulmonary and kidney

1. Factors which affect a drug’s volume of distribution

1. Patient’s gender
2. Patient’s age
3. Drug pka
4. Extent of drug-plasma protein binding
5. All of the above

1. EC 50 mainly reflexes a drugs:

1. Maximal effect
2. Potency
3. Lethality
4. Ease of elimination
5. Safety

1. Xerostomia can result from the following drugs side effects

1. Antidepressants
2. Antihistamines
3. Antihypertensive
4. A & B
5. All of the above

1. Receptors are usually made up of

1. Lipids
2. Proteins
3. DNA
4. Esters
5. Amines

1. Factors affecting renal drug secretion rates

1. Carrier saturation
2. Drug transfer rates across tubular membrane
3. Degree of drug-plasma protein binding
4. Rate of drug delivery to secretory sites
5. All of the above

1. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin

1. B12
2. C
3. E
4. B6
5. K

1. In acute allergic reaction, the first drug that should be administered is

1. Penicillin
2. Adrenaline
3. Morphine sulfate
4. Diclifenac Na
5. All of the above

1. Factors influencing osteoporosis development

1. Calcium intake
2. Degree of physical activity
3. Smoking
4. A & B
5. A & B & C

1. Primarily used to promote ovulation in patients wishing to become pregnant

1. Danazole
2. Medroxyprogesterone
3. Clomiphene
4. L-Norgestrel
5. Tamoxifen

1. Most common complication of insulin therapy:

1. Lipodystrophies
2. Hypotension
3. Gallstones
4. Hypoglycemia
5. Retinopathy

1. Second generic sulfonylurea

1. Chloropromide
2. Tolazamide
3. Acetohexamide
4. Glipizide
5. Tolbutamide

1. Methylparaben is used in the drug formulation as a

1. Diluents
2. Buffering agent
3. Disintegrant
4. Preservative
5. Lubricant

1. Beta-receptor antagonist primarily used for the treatment of glaucoma

1. Propranolo
2. Esmolol
3. Nadolol
4. Timolol
5. Pilocarpine

1. Drugs used to manage allergic reactions

1. Glucocorticoids
2. Antihistamines
3. Subcutaneous epinephrine
4. None of the above
5. All of the above

1. Most current opioid analgesics act at this opioid receptor subtype

1. Sigma
2. Kappa
3. Delta
4. Epsilon
5. Mu

1. Major adverse effect of heparin

1. Osteoporosis
2. Alopecia
3. Bleeding
4. Spontaneous fractures
5. Reduced glomerular filtration

To dispense an order calling for:

Prednisone 5 mg, one t.i.dx3 days, one b.i.dx3 days , one q.d.x3 days

1. The total medication needed is

1. 15 tab.
2. 18 tab.
3. 21 tab.
4. 24 tab.
5. 27 tab.

1. The drug Adeef contains the following active ingredient

1. Cefazolin
2. Cefixime
3. Cefdinir
4. Cefonicid
5. Cefotaxime

1. The drug Adeef is classified as

1. First generation cephalosporin
2. Second generation cephalosporin
3. Third generation cephalosporin
4. Fourth generation cephalosporin
5. Fifth generation cephalosporin

1. Mechanism of action for cochicine

1. Direct membrane stabilization
2. Binds to intracellular tubulin-preventing/ reducing microtubule formation
3. Decreases purine synthesis directly
4. Prevents IL-1 release directly
5. None of the above

1. A locally manufacture drug that contains the same active ingredient as celebra

1. Celex
2. Movalis
3. Belara
4. Lozar
5. Mepral

1. The active ingredient in Pantover is

1. Panthenol
2. Pantoprazole
3. Paroxetine
4. Omeprazole
5. Esomeprazole

1. The manufacturer of Pantover is

1. Birzeit
2. Jerusalem
3. Pharmacare
4. BeitJala
5. None of the above

1. The active ingredient in Effient is

1. Pravastatin
2. Praziquantel
3. Premethrin
4. Prasugrel
5. Phenylphrine

1. The drug Elocom contains the following active ingredient

1. Clobetasol propionate
2. Mometasonefuroate
3. Buserelin
4. Bupropion
5. Budeson

1. The drug Elocom is manufactured by

1. MSD
2. Schring-Plough
3. Novartis
4. Danpharm
5. Bayer

1. A drug that inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation is

1. Aspirin
2. Eptifibatide
3. Clopidex
4. Tirofiban
5. Abciximab

1. Plavix is manufactured by

1. MSD
2. Schring-Plough
3. Novartis
4. Sanofi-aventis
5. Bayer

1. Thiazides are known to reduce exertion of

1. Diazepam
2. Fluoxetine
3. Imipramine
4. Lithium
5. Potasium

1. The active ingredient in Amicor drug is

1. Amlodioine
2. Isosorbidemononitrate
3. Enalapril
4. Verapamil
5. Nifedipine

1. The most likely cause of death associated with an overdose of acetaminophen is

1. Arrhythmia
2. Hemorrhage stroke
3. Liver failure
4. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
5. Ventilator failure

1. All of the following belong to macrolides except

1. Rovamycin
2. Erythromycin
3. Clarithromycin
4. Azithromycin
5. Ofloxacin

1. The active ingredient in cytotec is

1. Cimetidine
2. Famotidine
3. Celecoxib
4. Omeprazole
5. Misoprostol

1. The active ingredient in Flucan is

1. Fluconazole
2. Itracanazole
3. Dicanazole
4. Micanazole
5. Bifenazole

1. A patient allergic to penicillin group antibiotics has to avoide

1. Zitrocin
2. Klacid
3. Levox
4. Taricin
5. Drypen

1. Clomiphene citrate is used clinically in the treatment of

1. Psoriasis
2. Depression
3. Infertility
4. Dysmenorrheal
5. Nausea

1. Lescol 40 mg capsules contains

1. Fluvaststin as sodim
2. Levofloxacin hemihydrates
3. Atorvastatin
4. Terbinafine hydrochloride
5. Loperamide hydrochloride

1. All of the following are B antagonists excepts

1. Salbutamol
2. Metoprolol
3. Nadolol
4. Atenolol
5. C & D

1. The USP content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?

1. Bioequivalency
2. Dissolution
3. Potency
4. Purity
5. Toxicity

1. Monitoring of INR is essential in monitoring patients using

1. Heparin
2. Lamotrigine
3. Warfarine
4. Glimepiride
5. Acarbose

(81- 90) answer with yes or no:

1. لا يجوز للصيدلي ان يكون مالكا لأكثر من مؤسسة صيدلانية واحدة
2. يجب ان لا تقل مساحة الصيدلية عن 40 متر مربع
3. مستودع الأدوية مخصص لبيع الأدوية بالجملة و المفرق لأي كان
4. صيدلية أغلقها صاحبها لمدة 12 شهرا فقط حسب الأصول بسبب سفره الى الخارج و عندما رجع له الحق بإعادة افتتاحها و ممارسة عمله
5. يجوز ان يكون تاريخ انتهاء الدواء مختوما بالحبر او مطبوعا من قبل الشركة الصانعة
6. يجوز ان يكون للصيدلية العامة باب فرعي آخر يتصل بمنزل الصيدلاني المسئول
7. يجوز حقن الإبر في الصيدلية من قبل أي كان
8. لا يجوز ان يكون باب الصيدلية الخاصة التابعة لجمعية خيرية على الشارع العام
9. يجوز للصيدلاني المالك او المسئول عن الصيدلية العمل كمندوب دعاية بالإضافةإلى عمله في الصيدلية
10. يلغى ترخيص الصيدلية الممنوح من الوزارة في حال تم بيع الصيدلية دون علم و موافقة الوزارة