A Level PE – Revision Questions – Neuromuscular function
The area between one Z line and the next Z line is called what? – sarcomere
In muscle fibre types what does FOG stand for? - fast oxidative glycolytic
How does the type of muscle contraction in the quadriceps change during the upward and downward phases of a squat? – isotonic concentric during upward phase, isotonic eccentric during downward phase
State 3 long term benefits of training on the muscular system – muscular hypertrophy, increased number of muscle fibres (hyperplasia), increased stores of PC, ATP, glycogen and triglycerides in muscles, increased capillary supply to muscles, increased number of mitochondria
Muscle fibres are made up of repeated units known as what? – myofibrils
Name the two protein filaments which are found in every sarcomere. – actin and myosin
When a muscle contracts what happens to the Z lines? – they move closer together
What is the I band and what happens to it when a muscle contracts? – it’s the area of actin not overlapping myosin and it decreases when a muscle contracts
What is the H zone and what happens to it when a muscle contracts? – it’s the area of myosin not overlapping with actin and it decreases or disappears when a muscle contracts
What is a neuromuscular junction? - place where motor neurone links to muscle fibre (at the motor end plate)
What is the name of the protein that winds around actin? –tropomyosin
Where are calcium ions involved in muscle contraction stored whilst a muscle is at rest? – sarcoplasmic reticulum
What happens when calcium ions enter the synaptic knob? – acetylcholine is released to help initiate a muscle contraction
Describe the all or nothing law – all the muscle fibres within a motor unit either contract or do not contract, there is no partial contraction
Name the globular protein which calcium ions bind with to move tropomyosin and free up the actin binding sites. – troponin
What is formed when actin and myosin bind together? – crossbridges
What name is given to the action of myosin pulling on actin during a muscle contraction? – thepowerstroke
What term is given to the process by which muscle fibres increase in size due to training? – hypertrophy
One benefit of power training is that there will be an increase in the number of enzymes which break down ATP and PC. Which component of fitness would this benefit the most? – speed
One benefit of training is increased muscle elasticity. State one benefit of this for the performer. – decreased risk of injury, increased range of movement
How does increased capillary density as a result of training benefit a performer? – faster/increased gas exchange therefore can provide more O2 to muscles
Increased myofibril hypertrophy as a result of training would most benefit which component of fitness? – strength (accept power)
Which type of muscle fibres have lower levels of anaerobic enzymes? – slow twitch
Which type of muscle fibres have the largest number of capillaries? – slow twitch (to deliver more O2 for aerobic energy production)
Which muscle fibres have the largest number of mitochondria? – slow twitch (this is where Krebs cycle and ETC occur)
Where doesKreb’s cycle and the Electron Transport Chain occur? – in mitochondria
Where does glycolysis occur? – cytoplasm
Which muscle fibres have the largest number of myoglobin? – slow twitch
Which muscle fibre type fatigues the most quickly? – fast twitch type IIx
Which type of muscle fibres produce the most force with the most speed? - fast twitch type IIx
What is the full term for type IIa fibres? – fast oxidative glycolytic fibres
What is the full term for type IIx fibres? – fast glycolytic fibres
True or false: fast twitch fibres produce energy mostly through anaerobic pathways. – true
Which fibres type would be best for a 100m sprinter? – fast twitch type IIx
True or false: fast twitch fibres have greater stores of ATP than slow twitch. – true
What is a motor unit? – a motor neurone and all of the muscle fibres connected to it
Define motor neurone. – nerves that carry information from the central nervous system (CNS) to the skeletal muscles
True or false: fast twitch fibres have larger motor neurones? – true
True or false: slow twitch fibres are able to relax more quickly than fast twitch? – false
How does being smaller/thinner benefit slow twitch fibres? – less diffusion distance and less weight/mass to physically carry during competition such as marathon
How do a large amount of myoglobin benefit slow twitch fibres? – greater supply of O2
Roughly what percentage of fast twitch fibres does the average person have? – 50%
True or false: endurance training can help convert type IIx fibres into type IIa fibres but cannot change fast twitch fibres into slow twitch fibres? – true
For which types of sport may Type IIa fibres be the best? – team sports/games activities which involve a mix of aerobic and anaerobic demands
What term can be defined by ‘another stimulus is applied before the motor unit (muscle) relaxes completely, resulting in more tension’. – wave summation
What term can be defined by ‘when stimuli are at a high frequency there is no time for relaxation between impulses so muscle tension is maintained’. – tetanus
A motor neurone does not activate a single muscle fibre, but a group of muscle fibres (all of the fibres that it is connected to); what does this define? – the all or nothing law
True or false: a motor unit can have a mix of slow and fast twitch fibres. – false (all the same type in each unit)
Define multiple unit summation and explain when it would be used – it is when the brain sends signals to activate more motor units, used when a greater strength of contraction is required
Define spatial summation and explain why/when it occurs? - The recruitment of motor units within a muscle is rotated to avoid fatigue. Used during endurance (submaximal) activities
Motor neurones pass messages from where to where? – From the central nervous system (brain) via the spinal cord to the muscle fibres
What happens when calcium ions enter the synaptic knob? – acetylcholine is released.
What is the role of acetylcholine in the initiation of a muscle contraction? – it spreads across the synapse forming a bridge along which the nerve impulse (action potential) can pass into the muscle fibre
State 3 of the 5 stages of muscle contraction.– resting, excitation, contraction, recharge, relaxation.
Which of the 5 stages of muscle contraction does the sliding filament theory relate to? – the contraction stage
A Level PE – Revision Questions – Diet and nutrition
Sugar, rice and bread are good sources of which nutrient? – carbohydrates
Roughly, what percentage of our diet should come from carbohydrates? – 60%
Which nutrient helps with growth and repair of cells? – protein
Which nutrient aids gastrointestinal functioning? – fibre
Define glycaemic index. - the rate at which the glucose from the food is broken down and absorbed
Define glycaemic load. - an estimate of how much a food will affect blood glucose levels
To decrease recovery time and reduce the risk of injury and fatigue it is best to eat foods with a high glycaemic index and load shortly after completing exercise. What is the time known as? – the two hour window of opportunity
Milk is an excellent drink to have immediately after training because of its mix of which nutrients? Protein and carbohydrates (and water)
Food should be eaten 3-4 hours before activity, explain how much carbohydrates, fat and fibre should be in this meal? – high carb (enhance glycogen stores), low fat (slows the rate at which food is digested), moderate in fibre (to help digestive processes)
Define the term ‘positive energy balance.’ – when energy intake is greater than energy expenditure and the result is a gain in weight
Excess glucose is stored as glycogen in muscles and liver. What is excess glycogen stored as? – fat
Define the term ‘negative energy balance.’ – when energy expenditure is greater than energy intake and the result is a loss in weight
What is basal metabolic rate (BMR)? - the minimum amount of energy required to keep our body functioning
True or false: your basal metabolic rate takes into account your physical activity levels. – false
Give an example of when two players in the same sports team may have different optimal weights. – best example is rugby when a prop would have a higher optimal weight and winger a lower optimal weight
Roughly what percentage of our body is made up of water? – 60%
State 2 factors which would affect the rate at which we would lose water during exercise. – exercise duration and intensity levels, environmental temperature and humidity, body size and fitness levels
True or false: dehydration will lead to difficulties in controlling body temperature. – true (as blood flows more slowly and vasoconstriction/vasodilation becomes difficult
During sweating we lose water (fluid) and what else? – electrolytes
Glucose osmolality of the drink is the same as blood defines which type of sports drink – isotonic
Glucose osmolality of the drink is greater than blood defines which type of sports drink – hypertonic
Glucose osmolality of the drink is lower than blood defines which type of sports drink – hypertonic
What type of sports drink could be referred to as ‘the thirst quencher?’ – hypotonic
Which type of sports drink is emptied into the stomach the most quickly? – hypotonic
Which type of sports drink is good for sports at low intensity or sports that require quick energy release but not in high quantities? – hypotonic
Why might an athlete use a hypotonic drink during a marathon run and what else might they require alongside this? – used because it rehydrates them the most quickly, would also need another source of carbohydrates as hypotonic drinks have little glucose
What type of sports drink could be referred to as ‘the energy booster?’ – hypertonic
Which type of sports drink is emptied into the stomach slowly and could therefore potentially cause stomach problems? – hypertonic
Which type of sports drinks is good for post-workout replenishment of energy levels? – hypertonic
Which sports drink is the preferred choice for most athletesdue to the balance of energy supply, speed of energy supply and rehydration capacity? – isotonic
True or false: hypotonic drinks are able to rehydrate us more quickly than water. – true
What is the danger in replacing fluids lost through sweat with water? – could lead to electrolyte inbalance as fluid is replaced but salts are not
State 3 problems in using water as opposed to a sports drink during exercise. – electrolyteinbalance, can cause bloating, doesn’t provide any energy, increases urination, no taste so might not drink as much
Which components of a healthy diet are the most important to consume during a marathon? – carbohydrates and water
Which 3 components are essential for post exercise recovery? – carbohydrates, protein and water
During what period are muscles said to be primed to accept nutrients that can stimulate muscle repair, muscle growth, and muscle strength? The 2-hour window of opportunity
True or false: chocolate milkshake is possibly the best post-workout choice? – true (perfect mix of fluid, protein and carbohydrates)
Name the process by which an athlete will increase the percentage of carbohydrates in their diet in the lead up to an event in order to increase muscle glycogen stores. – carbo-loading
For carbo-loading what considerations would an athlete need to give to the percentage of carbohydrates in their diet and the daily total number of calories that they are taking in for the 2-3 days leading up to an event? – percentage of energy gained through carbs would increase to around 85-95%, total calorie intake would remain the same to avoid risk of bloating/stomach problems
Which supplement is likely to enable a performer to work at maximal levels for longer? – creatine (increases PC stores)
What is a possible drawback of taking a creatine supplement? - water retention, vomiting, muscle cramps and diarrhoea
In what way would a protein supplement help an athlete? – allow them to train harder and more often through greater growth and repair of muscles
What are the drawbacks of taking protein supplements? – liver and kidney damage, also potentially pointless as dietary protein may be enough
True or false: herbal remedies will benefit sports performance levels. – neither, some help and some don’t
State a benefit of caffeine for a sportsperson. – increased alertness and reactions, increases the body’s use of fats therefore increasing ATP supply for aerobic activity
How does bicarbonate of soda benefit anaerobic activity and state one drawback ? – buffers lactic acid/ maintain pH levels, drawback include stomach cramps and vomiting
How does drinking beet juice benefit endurance performance? – it’s a vasodilator and increases the O2 supply to muscles
A Level PE – Revision Questions – Preparation and Training
Define VO2 max. - Maximum volume of oxygen that can be utilized in one minute
Define strength. - The force developed in a muscle during a contraction
Define agility. - The ability to change direction with speed
Define reaction time. - Time taken for a performer to respond to a stimulus
Define submaximal aerobic fitness. - The ability to maintain a high percentage of VO2 max for a prolonged period of time
Define anaerobic capacity. - The amount of energy obtained from anaerobic sources
Define speed. - Time taken to move a body (part or whole) through a movement
Define coordination. - The ability of the body to link movements together, either with other movements or in relation to an external object
Define flexibility. - The range of movement available at a joint
Define maximal strength. - The force that can be developed in a single maximal contraction
Define power and state how it is calculated. - The rate at which force is produced (speed x strength)
Define balance. - The ability to maintain your centre of mass over a base of support
Define exercise economy. - Energy required to maintain a constant velocity of movement
Define local muscular endurance. - The ability of a muscle to sustain repeated contractions
True or false: maximal aerobic fitness and VO2 max are the same. – true
State 3 tests for VO2 max. – 12 min Cooper run, MSFT, yoyo test
The Wingate Test and RAST can be used to assess which component of fitness? – anaerobic capacity
State a test for maximal strength. – one rep max or grip/leg and back dynamometer
The 30m sprint test is used to assess speed. What other component can affect the results? – reaction time
Other than the Illinois agility test state a test for agility. – T-test or 3 cone test.
State a test for coordination. – Anderson wall toss test
The stork stand test is used to assess which component of fitness? – balance
Which test can be used to assess flexibility? – sit and reach test
True or false: there are no tests available for exercise economy? – true
State 2 sub-maximal tests which can be used to estimate VO2 max. – Harvard step test and Rocjport walk test.
State a test for local muscular endurance. – sit up multi-stage fitness test
What does RPE stand for? – rate of perceived exertion (as part of the Borg scale) used to determine exercise intensity
What word is used for the process by which a fitness test must be completed? – protocol
Define reliability in terms of fitness testing. – how repeatable the results are
Define validity in terms of fitness testing – whether or not the test tests only the component that it is meant to (and isn’t affected by other components)
Other than the standing broad jump and the sergeant jump how can power be tested? – MargariaKalaman test
When is the clock started and stopped during the Margaria-Kalaman test? – started when performer steps on 3rd step, stopped when they step on 9th step.
How many 35m sprints are done in the RAST? – six
The Cunningham and Faulkner test is used to assess which component of fitness? – anaerobic capacity
At what speed and what incline is a treadmill set for the Cunningham and Faulkner test? – 8mph and 20% incline (performer keeps going for as long as they can)
How long does the Wingate test last? – 30s
True or false: the Wingate test and the Cunningham and Faulkner test are both completed on a cycle ergometer (exercise bike). – false, the Wingate is but the other one is on a treadmill
How does the yo-yo test differ from the MSFT? – it involves 10m of walking (active recovery) at the end of each 40m run.
True or false: The MSFT is generally said to be more appropriate for team sport (games) players in assessing their VO2 max than the yo-yo test. – false, the yo-yo test is more valid as it mimics sprints and then breaks in play
Name the 2 types of yo-yo test, one with 10s of active recovery at the end of each 40m run and the other with only 5s recovery. - Intermittent recovery test (YYIRT) with 10s and Intermittent endurance test (YYIET) with 5s recovery.