Chemistry Final Review
Level 3
Matter & Energy
_____ 1. Which of the following correctly pairs a phase of matter with its description?
A. / Solid: Particles have no motion.B. / Liquid: Particles expand to fill any container in which they are placed.
C. / Gas: Particles have higher amounts of energy than when in the liquid phase.
D. / Liquid: Particles are more strongly attached to one another than when in the solid phase.
_____ 2. Pure substances include ______.
a. elements only. c. elements and compounds.
b. compounds and mixtures. d. elements and mixtures.
_____ 3. The normal boiling point of water is ______.
a. 373 K b. 173 K c. 273 K d. 473 K
_____ 4. The table below shows the physical properties of selected metals.
Physical Properties of Selected MetalsMetal / Molecular mass (amu) / Melting point (°C) / Boiling point (°C) / Density (g/cm3)
Bismuth / 209.98 / 271 / 1560 / 9.80
Chromium / 52.00 / 1857 / 2672 / 7.20
Polonium / 210.05 / 254 / 962 / 9.40
Ruthenium / 101.07 / 2310 / 3900 / 12.3
A cube of an unknown metal has a volume of 2.25 cm3 and a mass of 16.2 g. Based on data in the table above, what is the identity of this metal?
a. bismuth b. chromium c. polonium d. ruthenium
_____ 5. One way that mixtures differ from pure substances is in the methods that can be used to separate them into their components. Which of the following is a method used to separate the components of some mixtures?
A. / a nuclear reactionB. / a filtration process
C. / a chemical reaction
D. / an electrolysis process
_____ 6. Which of the following substances is made of particles with the highest average kinetic energy?
a. Fe (s) at 35°C c. H2O (l) at 30°C
b. Br2 (l) at 20°C d. CO2 (g) at 25°C
_____ 7. Which of the following describes the separation of the components of a mixture?
A. / Water is broken down into hydrogen and oxygen.B. / Salt is isolated from seawater through evaporation.
C. / Propane reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.
D. / Calcium carbonate decomposes to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
_____ 8. Which temperature represents absolute zero?
a. 0 °C b. 0 K c. 273 K d. 273 °C
_____ 9. The graph below compares three states of a substance.
Which of the following choices is the best label for the y-axis?
a. molecular density c. neutron density
b. molecular motion d. neutron motion
_____ 10. A solid cube was put into a cylinder containing four liquids with different densities as shown below.
The cube fell quickly through layer A, fell slowly through layer B, and stopped upon reaching layer C. The density of the cube most likely lies between ______.
a. 1.00 and 1.50 g/cm3 c. 3.51 and 6.00 g/cm3
b. 1.51 and 3.50 g/cm3 d. 6.00 and 9.00 g/cm3
Atomic Structure
______1. The atomic number of an element indicates which of the following?
A. the number of neutrons in the atom
B. the number of protons in the atom
C. the sum of the neutrons and protons in the atom
D. the sum of the protons and electrons in the atom
_____ 2. Which of the following did scientists learn about the atom from Rutherford’s gold foil experiment?
A. Atoms combine in simple ratios to form compounds.
B. Electrons travel around the nucleus of an atom in concentric circular paths.
C. The mass of an atom and its positive charge are concentrated in the nucleus.
D. The atomic mass of an atom is equal to the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
____ 3. In principle energy level 2, what types of orbitals will be present?
A. s B. s & p C. s, p, & d D. s, p, d, & f
4. Deuterium (H) and protium (H) are two isotopes of hydrogen. Which of the following statements best compares a deuterium atom to a protium atom?A. / The deuterium atom has a smaller net charge.
B. / The deuterium atom has more electron orbitals.
C. / The deuterium atom has a smaller atomic radius.
D. / The deuterium atom has more particles in its nucleus.
5. Which of the following describes a particle that contains 36 electrons, 49 neutrons, and 38 protons?
A. / an ion with a charge of 2−
B. / an ion with a charge of 2+
C. / an atom with a mass of 38 amu
D. / an atom with a mass of 49 amu
_____ 6. Which of the following elements can form an anion that contains 54 electrons, 74 neutrons, and 53 protons?
A. / B. / C. / D._____ 7. Which of the following represents a pair of isotopes?
A. / 1H and 3H / B. / 16O2− and 19F1− / C. / 40K and 40Ca / D. / 16O2− and 32S2
_____ 8. Which element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p3?
A. boron B. nitrogen C. fluorine D. phosphorus
_____ 9. Which of the following pieces of evidence best supports Bohr’s idea that electrons occupy specific energy levels within an atom?
A. Sodium atoms become positive ions when they lose electrons.
B. Each element emits a unique bright-line spectrum when it falls from an excited state to a ground state.
C. Beryllium atoms bombarded with alpha particles produce beams that are not influenced by magnetic fields.
D. Each element has physical and chemical properties that are unique to that element and different from those of other elements.
_____ 10. How many grams are in 7.80 moles of NaCl?
A. 0.134 g B. 7.44 g C. 221 g D. 452 g
_____ 11. What is the molar mass of H2SO4, rounded to the nearest whole number?
A. 100 g B. 100 g/mol C. 98 g D. 98 g/mol
_____ 12. Which of the following comparisons correctly describes subatomic particles?
A. An electron has a negative charge and a mass larger than the mass of a proton.
B. A neutron has a negative charge and a mass smaller than the mass of a proton.
C. A neutron has a neutral charge and a mass larger than the mass of an electron.
D. A proton has a positive charge and a mass smaller than the mass of an electron.
_____ 13. How many moles of He have 7.34 x 1023 particles in it?
A. 0.820 mol B. 1.22 mol C. 44.2 mol 22.4 mol
_____ 14. How many neutrons are present in an atom of silver, which has a mass number of 108?
A. 14 B. 47 C. 61 D. 108
_____ 15. The atomic theories of Dalton, Thomson, Rutherford, and Bohr all support which of the following statements?
A. / Atoms are mostly composed of empty space.B. / All matter is composed of tiny, discrete particles called atoms.
C. / Electrons orbit the nucleus of an atom at distinct energy levels.
D. / Atoms are composed of positively and negatively charged particles.
_____16. When a sample of potassium chloride dissolves in water, it separates into potassium ions and chloride ions. Which of the following best accounts for the positive charge of the potassium ions?
A. They have extra mass.
B. They have a large volume.
C. They have fewer electrons than protons.
D. They have a high density of neutrons and protons.
_____17. Do 35 moles of helium or 35 moles of iron have more atoms in it?
A. helium
B. iron
C. they have the same number of atoms
D. not enough information is give to answer this question
Periodicity
_____ 1. Which element is considered malleable?
a. hydrogen b. gold c. sulfur d. radon.
_____ 2. Which element in period 2 has the greatest tendency to gain electrons?
a. fluorine b. lithium c. carbon d. neon
_____ 3. According to Mendeleev, the chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their
a. atomic size b. atomic weight c. atomic number d. isotopic weight
_____ 4. A vertical column in the periodic table is known as a(n)
a. octave b. period c. group d. triad
_____ 5. Which of the following elements has characteristics of some metals and also of some nonmetals?
a. antimony (51Sb) b. calcium (20Ca) c. sulfur (16S) d. zinc (30Zn)
_____ 6. According to Moseley, the chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their
a. atomic size b. atomic weight c. atomic number d. isotopic weight
_____ 7. Which of the following trends in the periodic table should be expected as the atomic number of the halogens increases from fluorine (F) to iodine (I)?
a. Atomic radius decreases c. Electronegativity decreases
b. Atomic mass decreases d. Electron number decreases
_____ 8. Which of the following correctly describes a trend from top to bottom in the group 2 (2A) elements on the periodic table?
a. Ionic radius decreases c. Ionic charge increases
b. Atomic radius increases d. Atomic number decreases
_____ 9. Which element will form an ion whose ionic radius is larger than its atomic radius?
a. fluorine b. potassium c. lithium d. magnesium
_____ 10. The most reactive member of the alkali metals is
a. potassium b. rubidium c. cesium d. francium
_____ 11. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?
a. B b. C c. O d. N
_____ 12. Based on its position on the periodic table, which of the following elements is a nonmetal?
a. potassium b. vanadium c. nickel d. bromine
_____ 13. Which of the following statements describes the elements in family 16 of the periodic table?
a. They have six valence electrons
b. They are all gases at room temperature
c. They exist commonly as cations in nature
d. They combine easily with elements in family 17
_____ 14. The figure below shows part of the periodic table.
CuAg
Au
Which of the following is an accurate comparison of the atomic number and mass of copper and gold?
a. Au has a smaller atomic mass and fewer electrons than Cu
b. Au has the same atomic mass as Cu but a greater atomic number
c. Au has the same atomic number as Cu but a much greater atomic mass
d. Au has both a greater atomic number and a greater atomic mass than Cu
_____ 15. The figure below represents the periodic table and the location of four different elements on the periodic table.
A certain element has a ground state electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p6. Which letter in the diagram above represents the position of this element on the periodic table?
a. W b. X c. Y d. Z
_____ 16. Which of the following elements is a member of the halogen family and is located in period 3?
a. argon (Ar) b. bromine (Br) c. chlorine (Cl) d. sulfur (S)
_____ 17. Which of the following sections of the periodic table contains only metals?
a. group 2 b. group 18 c. period 2 d. period 6
_____ 18. Which of the following characteristics of an element can be determined precisely by considering only the element’s specific position on the periodic table?
a. radius of each ion c. boiling point of the liquid
b. density of the solid d. number of protons in each atom
Chemical Bonding
_____ 1. Which of the following statements best explains why atoms bond?
A) Atoms bond to make new substances.
B) Atoms bond to become less chemically stable.
C) Atoms bond to change from a liquid to a solid.
D) Atoms bond to become more chemically stable.
_____ 2. The Lewis dot structure shown below represents an atom of an unknown
metallic element M.
When atoms of this unknown metal react with oxygen, a compound is formed. Which of the following is the most likely chemical formula of the resulting metal oxide?
A) MO B) MO2 C) M2O D) M2O3
_____ 3. An unknown metal, X, combines with nitrogen to form the compound XN.
Metal X also combines with oxygen to produce the compound X2O3.
Metal X is most likely which of the following elements?
A) 3Li B) 12Mg C) 31Ga D) 50Sn
_____ 4. The table below contains information about an unknown metal.
How many valence electrons does the unknown metal have?
A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6
_____ 5. Atoms of element A and atoms of element B react to form a compound. In
the reaction, the radius of each atom of element A is decreased.
Which of the following explains this decrease in atomic radius in the reaction?
A) The atoms of element A lose electrons to atoms of element B.
B) The atoms of element A gain neutrons from atoms of element B.
C) Nuclear particles are converted into energy in atoms of element A.
D) Protons become more densely packed in the nuclei of element A atoms.
_____ 6. The diagram below represents particles of different elements in a crystal.
What type of bond holds these particles together?
A) Covalent B) Hydrogen C) Ionic D) Polar
_____ 7. A student heated a 10 g sample of a compound in an open container. A chemical reaction occurred. The mass of the sample was measured again and found to be less than before. Which of the following explains the change in mass of the sample?
A) The heat caused the compound to become less dense.
B) The reaction gave off more heat than was added.
C) Some of the lighter atoms were converted to energy.
D) One of the reaction products was a gas.
_____ 8. A 1.00 kg sample of water (H2O) contains 0.11 kg of hydrogen (H) and 0.89
kg of oxygen (O). According to the law of definite proportions, how much hydrogen and oxygen would a 1.5 kg sample of water contain?
A) 0.11 kg H and 0.89 kg O
B) 0.17 kg H and 1.34 kg O
C) 0.22 kg H and 1.78 kg O
D) 1.34 kg H and 0.17 kg O
_____ 9. Which of the following has the same empirical formula as mercury (II)
acetate, Hg2(C2H3O2)2?
A) Mercury (I) bicarbonate, HgHCO3
B) Mercury (II) bicarbonate, Hg2(HCO3)2