Biology 2261 Name
Spring 1999 VERSION A
Third Examination
· Be sure to put your name on the mark-sense sheet.
· Be sure to indicate the version (A, B, C, or D) on the mark sense sheet.
· Put your name on the exam booklet. Both the exam booklet and the mark-sense sheet must be turned in at the end of the period.
· You may write in the exam booklet, but only the mark-sense sheet will be graded. No other paper, scratch paper, etc., may be used.
· Students must turn in the exam before leaving the room for any reason. A student may not continue working on the exam after having left the room.
Multiple Choice. 50 questions, 2 pt each.
1. Which of the following is a ciliated gastrointestinal parasite of humans?
(a) Balantidium coli (d) Giardia lamblia
(b) Plasmodium vivax (e) Candida albicans
(c) Entamoeba histolytica
2. Which of the following methods would be useful for detection of Giardia lamblia?
(a) The Enterotest capsule test
(b) The Scotch Tape Test
(c) The Gram Stain Test
(d) The Enterotube II Test
(e) The Clearview Test
3. Potato blight (Phytophthora) is caused by
(a) A sporozoan
(b) a flagellated protozoan
(c) an ascomycete
(d) a zygomycete
(e) an oomycete
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The following choices are used for questions 4 – 8.
(a) Schistosoma (d) Enterobius vermicularis
(b) Taenia saginata (e) Trichinella spiralis
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides
4. These small roundworms, which reach a maximum length of only
2 –3 mm, are transmitted through ingesting contaminated soil. They often cause painful itching around the anus in small children.
5. The intermediate host of this fluke is the snail.
6. The larvae of this roundworm travel from the intestinal tract to the muscle tissue, where they form cysts. It is transmitted predominately by eating contaminated pork.
7. The structure of this organism consists of a head segment (scolex) and thousands of body segments (proglottids).
8. The intermediate host of this organism is cattle.
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9. Chitin is a major component of
(a) viral envelopes. (d) the flagella of protozoa.
(b) fungal cell walls. (e) the flagella of bacteria.
(c) viral capsids.
10. In molds, hyphae are found in tangled masses called
(a) mycelia (d) pseudopodia
(b) yeasts (e) cilia
(c) capsids
11. Fungi that can grow as either molds or yeasts, depending on the environmental conditions, are called
(a) sexual fungi. (d) dimorphic fungi.
(b) cilated fungi. (e) biphasic fungi.
(c) flagellated fungi.
12. Guillan-Barre syndrome and Reye’s syndrome are both
(a) among the initial symptoms of a hepatitis B infection.
(b) associated with infection by the influenza virus
(c) caused by HIV.
(d) transmitted by the bite of a female mosquito.
(e) viral diseases of the skin.
13. Which of the following is a fungus that causes respiratory tract infections and is often transmitted by contact with contaminated soil?
(a) Candida albicans (d) Cryptococcus neoformans
(b) Tinea pulmonaris (e) Giardia lamblia
(c) Toxoplasma gondii
14. Shingles is an adult disease caused by
(a) an enveloped RNA virus.
(b) a nonenveloped RNA virus.
(c) the herpes simplex virus.
(d) a virus transmitted mainly by arthropod vectors.
(e) the same virus that causes chickenpox.
15. The actively growing and reproducing form of a protozoan parasite is called a
(a) cyst (d) vegetative cell
(b) mycelium (e) trophozoite
(c) protocyte
16. New genetic strains of the influenza virus develop due to
(a) the high mutational rate associated with the reverse transcriptase enzyme of the influenza virus.
(b) antigenic variation of the envelope spike proteins coupled with genetic exchange of RNA segments.
(c) host immune responses that destroy cells infected with the virus.
(d) onset of neurological symptoms in the late stages of infection.
(e) the effects of aspirin and aspirin-like compounds.
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The following choices are used for questions 17 - 20.
(a) adenovirus (d) rabies virus
(b) papilloma virus (e) bovine spongiform encephalopathy prion
(c) enterovirus
17. This is an infectious protein particle with no nucleic acid.
18. This pneumotrophic agent causes severe colds, and it may cause viral meningitis.
19. This virus is in the same family of small RNA viruses as poliovirus and rhinovirus.
20. This agent is responsible for warts.
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21. What do the Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex virus, and varicella virus have in common?
(a) All of them can cause a severe form of encephalitis.
(b) All of them are retroviruses.
(c) All of them belong to the Herpes family.
(d) All of them have been linked with Reye’s syndrome.
(e) All of them have been linked with Burkitt’s lymphoma.
22. Herpes simplex infections have been associated all of the following EXCEPT
(a) cold sores forming around the lips and nose.
(b) herpes encephalitis.
(c) congenital herpes infections in newborns.
(d) genital herpes.
(e) chronic liver disease accompanied by jaundice.
23. All of the following are associated with infections by Entamoeba histolytica EXCEPT
(a) cysts of the parasite are released in the feces.
(b) several stages of the parasite develop in the female Anopheles mosquito.
(c) the parasite causes ulceration in the large intestine.
(d) the parasite may spread to the peritoneum by perforation of the intestine.
(e) the parasite may spread to liver or lung tissue.
24. Which of the following is a flagellated gastrointestinal parasite of humans?
(a) Balantidium coli (d) Giardia lamblia
(b) Plasmodium vivax (e) Candida albicans
(c) Entamoeba histolytica
25. All of the following is associated with malaria EXCEPT
(a) the disease is caused by species of the genus Plasmodium.
(b) the parasite has both sexual and asexual stages during its developmental cycle.
(c) several stages of the parasite develop in the female Anopheles mosquito.
(d) the parasite is motile by means of cilia.
(e) the parasite infects red blood cells in humans.
26. Which of the following terms best describes dermatomycosis of the groin area?
(a) tinea corporis (d) tinea cruris
(b) tinea pedis (e) tinea capitis
(c) tinea favosa
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The following choices are used for questions 27 - 30.
(a) The sexual spores of this fungus are motile, aquatic spores.
(b) The sexual spores of this fungus are found on club-like structures.
(c) The sexual spores of this fungus are formed in enclosed, sac-like structures.
(d) No sexual stage has yet been discovered for this fungus.
(e) This organism is not a fungus.
27. Histoplasma capsulatum
28. Candida albicans
29. Penicillium notatum
30. Plasmodium vivax
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31. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
(a) has no envelope.
(b) contains RNA in its viral particles.
(c) uses reverse transcriptase to manufacture RNA molecules from a DNA template.
(d) multiplies only within neurons.
(e) is generally transmitted by eating contaminated food.
32. The incubation period of hepatitis A is usually between
(a) one hour to four hours. (d) four weeks to six months.
(b) two days to four days. (e) six months to six years.
(c) two weeks to four weeks.
33. The Dane virus particle
(a) is responsible for hepatitis C.
(b) belongs to the picornavirus group.
(c) consists of a DNA molecule covered by a core antigen lipoprotein coat and a surface antigen coat.
(d) causes the fusion of host cells to form large multinucleated cells.
(e) is shed in the feces of infected individuals.
34. Retroviruses
(a) have RNA in their viral particles, and replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of their host cells.
(b) have RNA in their viral particles, but replicate through a DNA intermediate.
(c) have DNA in their viral particles, and are capable of incorporating their DNA into the chromosomes of their host cells.
(d) have DNA in their viral particles, but replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of their host cells.
(e) are released from their host cells by lysis.
35. Individuals who contract HIV may exhibit some initial acute symptoms from a few weeks to several months after contracting the virus. These symptoms include
(a) fever, diarrhea, rash, lymph node swelling, and fatigue.
(b) jaundice, nausea, fever, dark urine, and clay-colored stools.
(c) numerous fluid-filled skin lesions.
(d) the formation of large, multinucleated cells in the respiratory tract.
(e) paralysis of the pharynx muscles and saliva dripping from the mouth.
36. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is often an early indication of the development of AIDS in an individual infected with HIV. It is defined as
(a) the onset of weight loss, persistent fever, and diarrhea.
(b) the development of certain types of tumors.
(c) a combination of secondary bacterial, protozoan, and fungal infections.
(d) swelling of the lymph nodes for greater than six months in two or more regions of the body (excluding the groin).
(e) loss of memory and cognitive reasoning.
37. Two important means for contracting toxoplasmosis are
(a) inhaling the protozoa and an arthropod bite.
(b) an arthropod bite and consuming rare beef.
(c) consuming rare beef and contact with a cat.
(d) contact with a cat and inhaling the protozoa.
(e) an arthropod bite and contact with a cat.
38. HIV causes the loss of immune system function due to
(a) the destruction of host RNA by the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme.
(b) the loss of autonomic nervous system control of antibody production.
(c) a decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes.
(d) the denaturation of serum immunoglobulins by the virus spike proteins.
(e) nutrient factors produced by HIV that stimulate the growth rate of bacteria which cause secondary infections.
39. Herpes simplex type II is most often associated with
(a) cold sores and fever blisters. (d) infectious mononucleosis.
(b) genital herpes. (e) infectious hepatitis.
(c) chickenpox.
40. Which of the following applies to the organism Cryptococcus neoformans?
(a) It is a fleshy fungus.
(b) It grows in soil contaminated by pigeon droppings.
(c) It is an anaerobic bacterium.
(d) It is normally found in the human intestine.
(e) It is a member of the class Sporozoa.
41. Candida albicans infection of the intestine may occur as a result of
(a) excessive intake of salty food.
(b) overuse of antibiotics.
(c) overgrowth of certain bacteria in the intestine.
(d) production of certain fungal toxins.
(e) excessive intake of alcoholic beverages.
42. Dermatomycosis refers to fungal disease
(a) that resists antimicrobial treatment.
(b) of the hair, skin, and nails.
(c) that spreads to the internal organs.
(d) occurring only in the southwestern U.S.
(e) that is spread by airborne contact through contaminated ventilation systems.
43. Pneumocystis carinii is a common cause of
(a) intestinal disease in Europeans.
(b) deadly blood fevers where populations of mosquitos abound.
(c) skin disease where climates are cold and water is contaminated.
(d) pneumonia in persons with suppressed immune systems.
(e) liver disease in persons who consume large quantities of alcohol.
44. Another name for the HIV virus is
(a) CMV (d) a and b
(b) LAV (e) b and c
(c) HTLV-III
45. Infectious NANB hepatitis is caused by
(a) the hepatitis A virus. (d) the delta hepatitis virus.
(b) the hepatitis B virus. (e) the hepatitis E virus.
(c) the hepatitis C virus.
46. Serum NANB hepatitis is caused by
(a) the hepatitis A virus. (d) the delta hepatitis virus.
(b) the hepatitis B virus. (e) the hepatitis E virus.
(c) the hepatitis C virus.
47. Primary amebic meningoencephalitis is generally associated with
(a) the co-infection of the patient with a picornavirus and a protozoan.
(b) a ciliated protozoan.
(c) a dimorphic fungus.
(d) a protozoan transmitted by ticks.
(e) a protozoan of the genus Naegleria.
48. All of the following apply to giardiasis EXCEPT
(a) the disease is often chronic.
(b) a flagellated protozoan causes the disease.
(c) diarrhea is a symptom.
(d) outbreaks have been reported in the United States.
(e) transmission occurs only through mosquito bites.
49. Cytomegalovirus poses a threat to pregnant women because it
(a) localizes in the brain.
(b) robs the body of important nutrients.
(c) passes across the placenta and destroys fetal tissues.
(d) interrupts the process of lactation.
(e) interrupts the normal digestive tract functions.
50. Delta hepatitis
(a) is caused by a small RNA virus that only causes infections in individuals who are also infected with hepatitis B.
(b) is caused by a small RNA virus that only causes infections in individuals who are also infected with hepatitis A.
(c) is usually transmitted through contaminated food or water.
(d) is caused by a member of the herpes virus group.
(e) is the most common form of viral hepatitis.
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