Exam 5
1.What is the maximum amount of memory that the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Home Premium supports?
A.1 GB
B.2 GB
C.4 GB
D.6 GB
Answer: C
The 32-bit version of Windows 7 can support up to 4 GB of memory, except the Starter edition, which supports only 2 GB.
2.Which component of Windows 7 helps prevent the installation of software on your system without your knowledge?
A.User Account Control
B.System Configuration
C.System Information
D.Control Panel
Answer: A
User Account Control (UAC) is a feature that started with Windows Vista and is included with Windows 7 that helps prevent unauthorized changes to your computer.
3.What is the central secure database that Windows uses to store all hardware and software configuration?
A.Executable files
B.INI files
C.Power Scripts
D.Registry
Answer: D
The Registry is a central, secure database in which Windows stores all hardware configuration information, software configuration information, and system security policies. Components that use the Registry include the Windows kernel, device drivers, setup programs, hardware profiles, and user profiles.
4.What is the largest amount of memory that a 32-bit processor can support?
A.4 GB or 64 GB
B.2 GB or 32 GB
C. 1 GB or 4 GB
D.4 GB or 32 GB
Answer: A
For years, processors were 32-bit processors that could process up to 4 GB or 64 GB of memory. If a 32-bit processor has a 32-bit address bus, it would recognize up to 4 GB of memory. If the 32-bit processor has a 36-bit address bus, the processor would recognize up to 64 GB of memory.
5.Which tool is used to show details about your computer’s hardware configuration, computer components, software, and drivers?
A.System Information
B.System Configuration
C.Registry Editor
D.Event Viewer
Answer: A
System Information (also known as msinfo32.exe) shows details about your computer’s hardware configuration, computer components, and software, including drivers. It was originally included with Windows to assist Microsoft support people in determining machine specifics especially when talking to end users, but it can be used by anyone at any time.
6.What is the minimum processor to install the 32- or 64-bit versions of Windows 7?
A.800 MHz
B.1 GHz
C.1.2 GHz
D.1.5 GHz
Answer: B
You need a 1-GHz processor or faster to install Windows 7.
7.What is the default subnet mask for 145.54.65.3?
A.255.0.0.0
B.255.255.0.0
C.255.255.255.0
D.255.255.255.255
Answer: B
Because alladdresses beginning with a 145 are class B addresses, the subnet mask is 255.255.0.0. The first octet of class B addresses range between 128 and 192.
8.What is the default subnet mask for 200.54.65.3?
A.255.0.0.0
B.255.255.0.0
C.255.255.255.0
D.255.255.255.255
Answer: C
Because alladdresses beginning with a 200 are class C addresses, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0. The first octet of class C addresses range between 192 and 223.
9.What service would be used to translate from NetBIOS names to IP addresses?
A.DNS
B.WINS
C.DHCP
D.NAT
Answer: B
Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) translates from NetBIOS (computer name) to specify a network resource. Since the growth of the Internet and the scalability of DNS, WINS is considered a legacy system.
10.What port does FTP use?
A.21
B.53
C.389
D.23
Answer: A
A host uses ports to identify which packets belong to a network service or program. FTP uses TCP/UDP ports 20 and 21.
11.What should you ping to test TCP/IP functionality of your computer?
A.127.0.0.1
B.10.10.255.255
C.255.255.255.255
D.240.255.255.255
Answer: A
To test TCP/IP functionality, you can ping localhost, which is known by its address of 127.0.0.1. You can enter the string ping localhost or the string ping 127.0.0.1 to check the viability of the client’s IP stack.
12.What command is used to display the NetBIOS table?
A.ipconfig
B.nslookup
C.netstat
D.nbtstat
Answer: D
Nbtstat.exe is a useful tool for troubleshooting NetBIOS name resolution problems. The command nbstat -c displays the contents of the NetBIOS name cache.
13.What is used in Active Directory to authenticate and audit a computer’s access to a Windows network and its access to domain resources?
A.Sites
B.Organizational units
C.User accounts
D.Computer accounts
Answer: D
Like user accounts, Windows computer accounts provide a means for authenticating and auditing the computer’s access to a Windows network and its access to domain resources. Each Windows computer to which you want to grant access to resources must have a unique computer account.
14.What defines the type of access that is granted to an object?
A.Permissions
B.Auditing object
C.User right
D.Authentication
Answer: A
A permission specifies what a group or user can perform with an object (such as a file, folder, printer, or user account).
15.What is a collection of computers that are all peers?
A.Objects
B.Workgroups
C.Domains
D.Groups
Answer: B
A workgroup is a collection of computers that are all peers. A peer network is one in which every computer can function as both a server by sharing its resources with other computers and function as a client by accessing the shared resources on other computers. On a workgroup network, each computer has its own set of users and groups that it uses to control access to its own resources.
16.Which operating mode can a wireless adapter run in that allows it to connect directly to other computers with wireless adapters?
A.IBSS
B.ESS
C.WEP
D.WPA
Answer: A
Independent basic service set (IBSS), also known as ad hoc, enableshosts to connect directly to other computers with wireless adapters.
17.Which of the following will not cause poor wireless strength?
A.A wall
B.Conflicting devices using the same frequency
C.Height
D.Distance
Answer: C
If your wireless network connection drops frequently or you suffer from poor performance, you should
•Check to make sure that the wireless access point and wireless device are transmitting at maximum power.
•Try to move closer to the access point or move the access point closer to the client computer.
•Try adjusting the antennas or replace the antenna of the wireless access point to a high-gain antenna.
Devices that also broadcast can cause poor connections.
18.Which remote authentication protocol is an industry standard that is based on the md5 hashing scheme?
A.PAP
B.CHAP
C.MS-CHAP v2
D.EAP-MS-CHAPv2
Answer: B
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is a challenge-response authentication that uses the industry standard md5 hashing scheme to encrypt the response. CHAP was an industry standard for years and is still quite popular.
19.When using DirectAccess, you need to use an Active Directory domain, IPv6, and ______.
A.WINS
B.A read-only DNS
C.PKI
D.BranchCache
Answer: c
Direct Access requiresIPv6, Windows Server 2008 R2, an Active Directory domain, and PKI.
20.What does it mean when a device is listed as an unknown device?
A.The device is disabled.
B.The device is in a problem state.
C.The device is unknown.
D.The device has been rolled back.
Answer: C
You also need to check whether any devices are listed as an unknown device, listed under Other devices, or has a generic name such as Ethernet Controller or PCI Simple Communications Controller, which indicates that the proper driver is not loaded.
21.Which NTFS permission allows you to navigate through restricted folders to reach other files and folders?
A.Read
B.Write
C.Execute
D.Read & Execute
Answer: D
The Read & Execute permission, as well as the Read and List Folder permissions, includes allowing you to navigate through restricted folders to reach other files and folders.
22.If you cannot do an in-place upgrade, which of the following tools can help you migrate your data files and settings from one Windows installation to another?
A.Migration toolkit
B.Xcopy
C.Windows Explorer
D.USMT
Answer: D
Windows Easy Transfer (WET) and User State Migration Toolkit (USMT) can help you migrate data files and settings between Windows installations.
23.What do you use to determine which edition and version of Windows 7 you are using?
A.Task Manager
B.Start menu
C.System properties
D.Notification area
Answer: C
To quickly see the version of Windows 7 you are using, use System properties. You can also type winver at the command prompt.
24.What do you need to be able to extend a hard drive in Windows 7?
A.The volumes must exist on a basic disk.
B.The volumes must exist on a dynamic disk.
C.The disk needs to use MBR.
D.The disk needs to use GPT.
Answer: B
Dynamic disks enable you to shrink and extend volumes on the fly without any third-party utilities.
25.What is 2027::3ff4:932b:65bb called?
A.MAC Address
B.WEP key
C.IPv4 address
D.IPv6 address
Answer: D
2027::3ff4:932b:65bb is an IPv6 address. It is short for 2027:0000:0000:0000:0000:3ff4:932b:65bb.
26.What command do you use to query a DNS server for a name translation to an IP address?
A.ipconfig
B.ipconfig /flushdns
C.ipconfig /registerdns
D.nslookup
Answer: D
The nslookup command displays information that you can use to diagnose your DNS infrastructure.
27.Where do you find the Users console?
A.Accessories
B.Maintenance folder
C.Control Panel
D.System properties
Answer: C
To create and manage users in Windows 7, you need to open the Users console from Control Panel.
28.Which special or administrative share is used during remote administration of a computer and for viewing a computer’s shared resources?
A.NetLogin
B.Print$
C.C$
D.IPC$
Answer: D
ADMIN$ and IPC$ are both used by the system during remote administration of the computer.
29.What can be done to notify you when a website has changed?
A.Configure autoupdate with IIS.
B.Configure dynamic update with IIS.
C.If a website supports RSS, you can configure an RSS feed.
D.Close and restart IE.
Answer: C
RSS feeds are used to get automatic updates and notifications when a website posts something new.
30.You work for a large corporation and just installed Windows. You try to check for Windows updates but cannot access the Windows update website. What should you do?
A.Be sure you are logged in as a domain administrator.
B.Add yourself to the Windows Update local group.
C.Activate Windows.
D.Check your proxy settings in IE.
Answer: D
If Windows update fails to get updates, you should check your proxy settings in IE to see whetherit can get through your proxy server or firewall.
31.Where can you manage all your devices that are connected through your USB ports?
A.Devices folder
B.Devices and Printers folder
C.USB folder
D.Plug and Play folder
Answer: B
The Devices and Printers folder gives you a quick view of devices connected to your computer. These devices are typically external devices that you can connect to or disconnect from your computer through a port or network connection.
32.How many disks do you need to create RAID0?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B
RAID0 is called striping, which uses 2 to 32 disks to create a single volume that is spread out through all the disks. Because it is spread out throughout all the disks, the spanned disk provides better performance.
33.What service can you use that translates from computer/NetBIOS names to IP addresses?
A.DNS
B.WINS
C.DHCP
D.NAT
Answer: B
To translate from the NetBIOS computer names, you use WINS.
34.You need to configure multiple computers with the least amount of administrative effort to connect to your wireless network. What should you do?
A.Manually configure each computer’s wireless adapters.
B.Save the wireless network settings to a USB device and apply it to each computer.
C.Copy the wireless network settings to a shared folder and access the configuration from the share folder on each laptop.
D.Copy the wireless network settings to the hard disk of each of the new computers.
Answer: B
You can save the information to a USB device and then use thatdevice to copy the configuration to each computer.
35.Which of the following is nota folder-sharing technology available in Windows 7?
A.Public Sharing
B.Basic Sharing
C.NFS
D.Advanced Sharing
Answer: C
The three types of sharing available in Windows 7 are Public Sharing, Basic Sharing, and Advanced Sharing. NFS sharing is associated with UNIX machines.
36.What do you call a package of multiple shimsbundled together by Microsoft?
A.MSI package
B.XP Package
C.Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit
D.Microsoft Application Reconfig Kit
Answer: C
In new versions of Windows, Microsoft includes numerous shims, or minor fixes, that are used to improve compatibility with existing non-Microsoft software. Microsoft analyzed the application and provided an application compatibility shim. These shims are bundled with the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit.
37.You want to view someone’s Event Viewer without logging directly onto that person’s computer. What option should you use?
A.System Information
B.Computer Management console
C.System Information tool
D.Remote Management console
Answer: B
By using the Computer Management console, you can connect to remote computers to manage viewing the Event Viewer.
38.You configured your computer to dual-boot between Windows Vista and Windows 7. What do you use to modify the boot configuration so that it will boot to Windows Vista by default?
A.Modify the boot.ini file.
B.Modify the bootmgr file to point to the volume with Windows Vista.
C.Use the disk management tool within the Computer Management console.
D.Use the bcdedit command.
Answer: D
To modify the boot configuration for Windows Vista and Windows 7 systems, you need to use the bcdedit command to edit the hidden file that stores the boot configuration.
39.What is the number of disks needed for RAID1?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
Answer: B
RAID1 is known as disk mirroring, which has one disk act as a duplicate of another disk. If one fails, you can keep on working without any downtime. Therefore, you need to have two disks.
40.Which command can you use to display your current IP address and subnet mask?
A.netstat
B.nslookup
C.ipconfig
D.ping
Answer: C
The ipconfig command displays the current TCP/IP configuration.
41.What generates a message asking whether you need permission to continue when installing an application?
A.Windows firewall
B.NTFS permissions
C.UAC
D.Internet Sharing
Answer: C
The User Account Control (UAC) is used to prevent unauthorized changes to the computer, particularly by programs.
42.Where would you enable network discovery?
A.Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
B.Network and Sharing Center
C.Registry Editor
D.Computer Management console
Answer: B
Link Layer Topology Discovery/network discovery queries each device that supports Plug and Play extensions or web services for devices to determine a network’s capabilities and topology. To enable network discovery, you use the Network and Sharing Center.
43.You have a customized project management application that was written for Windows XP. Unfortunately, it does not run under Windows 7. What should you try first?
A.Run the application in Windows XP mode.
B.Modify the privilege level for the application to run as a standard user.
C.Run the MST transform on the application.
D.Run the application under 256 colors.
Answer: A
You need to run the application in Windows XP mode because Windows 7’s enhanced security does not allow the application to run.
44.What program do you use to quickly restore your computer’s system files to an earlier point in time without affecting your data?
A.System Restore
B.Shadow Copy
C.System Image Backup
D.Safe Mode
Answer: A
System Restore helps you restore your computer’s system files to an earlier point in time. It’s a way to undo system changes to your computer without affecting your personal files, such as email, documents, or photos.
45.Which applet in the Control Panel do you use to change virtual memory settings?
A.System
B.Computer Management
C.Hardware
D.Device Manager
Answer: A
The System applet allows you to change computer names, manage user profiles, change virtual memory settings, and change other system settings.
46.What is the central secure database in which Windows stores all hardware configuration information, software configuration information, and system security policies?
A.Control Panel
B.Boot.INI file
C.Registry
D.NTLDR store
Answer: C
The Registry is a central, secure database that stores most of your Windows configuration. To manage the Registry manually, use the Registry Editor (regedit.exe).
47.What address is used by a local host when you need to forward packets to the host on a different subnet?
A.Network mask
B.Default gateway
C.NAT
D.DNS
Answer: B
The default gateway is a device, usually a router, that connects the local network to other networks. When you need to communicate with a host on another subnet, you forward all packets to the default gateway.
48.DirectAccess requires which protocol to operate?
A.IPv4
B.IPv6
C.HTTPS
D.PPTP
Answer: C
A new feature of Windows 7 and Windows Server2008 R2,DirectAccess uses IPv6 and IPSec to provide a secure, always-on connection that requires little or no user interaction.
49.When you copy a file from a folder in the C drive to another folder in the C drive, which permissions does the file retain?
A.Permissions assigned to the source folder
B.Permissions assigned to the target folder
C.No permissions
D.Full permissions to Everyone
Answer: B
When you copy a file from one folder to another within the same drive, it retains permissions assigned to the target folder.
50.You want to access the C drive remotely on a computer called PC1, but it has not been manually shared. If you are an administrator, how can you access it?
A.Through \\PC1\C
B.Through \\PC1\C$
C.Through \\PC1\CDrive
D.Through \\PC1\Drives\C
Answer: B
Administrative shares are hidden shared folders that allow administrative personnel to connect to the root directory of a drive. In this case, it is identified with the C$.
51.You have a website within your corporation’s local intranet. When a user accesses the website, he is prompted for a username and password. How can you make the authentication occur automatically?
A.Change the authentication for the website to anonymous.
B.Add the web site’s URL to the Local Intranet zone.
C.Add the web site’s URL to Trusted Sites zone.
D.Change the credentials in the Credential Manager.
Answer: B
Adding the website to the Local Intranet zone sets IEto try automatically to use your Windows username and password.
52.What key do you need to press to enter Safe mode during boot up?
A.F1
B.F4